BNSS Prelims Test Series

Comprehensive test series for BNSS Prelims examinations having a repository of 500 questions covering the entire length & breadth of BNSS.

Summary of legislative guidelines for the Magistrate and Investigating officer and Rights of Accused and Victims in BNSS.

Directions for Investigating officer

Rights of Victim

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 1

Instructions: This test contains 50 Multiple Choice Questions covering the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023. Each question carries equal marks. Choose the most appropriate option from A, B, C, or D. Answers are given in the end.

Q1. According to Section 2(1)(y), which of the following is included in the definition of a "victim"?

A) Only the person who suffered direct loss

B) The person who suffered loss and their guardian or legal heir

C) The person who suffered injury and their immediate family

D) Only the informant of the crime

Q2. Under Section 173(1), if information regarding a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, within how many days must it be signed by the informant to be taken on record?

A) Twenty-four hours

B) Three days

C) Seven days

D) Fourteen days

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding "Community Service" as a punishment:

Statement I: It is a form of work ordered by the Court that benefits the community.

Statement II: The convict is entitled to 50% of the minimum wage for such work.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q4. (Logical) Under Section 479, a first-time offender (never convicted before) shall be released on bail if they have undergone detention for:

A) One-half of the maximum imprisonment

B) One-third of the maximum imprisonment

C) One-fourth of the maximum imprisonment

D) Two-thirds of the maximum imprisonment

Q5. (Situation) A police officer arrests a 65-year-old infirm person for an offence punishable with 2 years of imprisonment. According to Section 35(7), whose prior permission is required for this arrest?

A) Judicial Magistrate of the first class

B) Deputy Superintendent of Police

C) Superintendent of Police

D) No permission is required for cognizable offences

Q6. Under Section 176(3), for which category of offences is it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and for the process to be videographed?

A) Offences punishable with 3 years or more

B) Offences punishable with 7 years or more

C) Only in cases of murder and rape

D) All cognizable offences

Q7. Which section of the BNSS mandates that all trials, inquiries, and proceedings may be held in electronic mode?

A) Section 528

B) Section 530

C) Section 531

D) Section 2

Q8. (Assertion-Reason) Assertion (A): A Magistrate can order the sale of property pending trial if it is subject to speedy and natural decay. Reason (R): Section 497(1) empowers the Court to dispose of such property to prevent loss after recording necessary evidence.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q9. Within what period must a Magistrate pass a final order for the disposal or destruction of property after documentation (statement/photos/videos) is complete?

A) Seven days

B) Fourteen days

C) Thirty days

D) Sixty days

Q10. (Analytical) Based on the ruling in Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P. cited in the notes, the registration of an FIR for a cognizable offence is:

A) Discretionary based on the credibility of information

B) Mandatory if the information discloses a cognizable offence

C) Optional if a preliminary inquiry is pending

D) Subject to the approval of a Magistrate

Q11. Under Section 105, the recording of search and seizure through audio-video electronic means should preferably be done on:

A) A professional DSLR camera

B) A mobile phone

C) A CCTV system

D) A dedicated body-worn camera

Q12. What is the maximum sentence a Magistrate of the first class can pass under Section 23(2)?

A) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to ₹10,000

B) Imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to ₹50,000

C) Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine up to ₹1,00,000

D) Imprisonment up to 1 year and fine up to ₹5,000

Q13. (Situation) 'A' is dispossessed of his house by 'B' using criminal intimidation. 'B' is convicted. Within how many days of the conviction can the Trial Court order restoration of the property to 'A' under Section 502?

A) At the time of conviction only

B) Within 14 days

C) Within 30 days

D) Within 60 days

Q14. Regarding the "Deemed Sanction" for prosecuting a public servant (Section 218), the appropriate Government must decide on the sanction request within:

A) 60 days

B) 90 days

C) 120 days

D) 180 days

Q15. Under Section 193(3)(ii), a police officer is mandated to inform the victim/informant about the progress of the investigation within:

A) 30 days

B) 60 days

C) 90 days

D) 120 days

Q16. (Complex) Which of the following irregularities renders a proceeding VOID under Section 507 if done by an unauthorized Magistrate?

A) Issuing a search-warrant under Section 97

B) Tendering a pardon under Section 343

C) Making an order for maintenance under Chapter X

D) Taking cognizance on a police report

Q17. (Logical) If an investigation is pending on June 30, 2024, how shall it be disposed of according to Section 531?

A) It must be restarted under BNSS

B) It shall be continued in accordance with the CrPC, 1973

C) It must be transferred to a Special Court

D) It is automatically stayed

Q18. According to Section 482(4), anticipatory bail shall NOT apply to persons accused of:

A) Murder

B) Organized Crime

C) Rape of a minor under Section 65 or 70(2) BNS

D) Terrorist acts

Q19. (Case Law) According to Teesta Atul Setalvad v. State of Gujarat, does the power to seize "any property" include bank accounts?

A) No, only physical goods

B) Yes, even those not belonging to the accused if they create suspicion

C) Only if the account is in the name of the accused

D) Only with a specific order from the High Court

Q20. In a trial before a Court of Session, an application for discharge must be preferred by the accused within ________ days from the date of commitment.

A) 30 days

B) 45 days

C) 60 days

D) 90 days

Q21. (Statement Check) Statement I: A Magistrate can take cognizance of an offence based on his own knowledge (Section 210(1)(c)). Statement II: If he does so, the accused has a right to have the case tried by another Magistrate.

A) Only I is correct

B) Only II is correct

C) Both I and II are correct

D) Neither I nor II is correct

Q22. Under Section 232, the committal proceedings to a Court of Session must be completed within ________ days from taking cognizance.

A) 30 days

B) 60 days

C) 90 days

D) 120 days

Q23. (Situation) 'X' is convicted of defamation. The Court wants to destroy the libellous documents. This is done under:

A) Section 498

B) Section 501

C) Section 503

D) Section 107

Q24. (Really Hard) According to Section 25, if a person is convicted of multiple offences at one trial, what is the absolute maximum period of imprisonment they can be sentenced to?

A) 14 years

B) 20 years

C) Life imprisonment

D) No limit as long as it is not more than twice the Magistrate's power

Q25. Which authority prepares the panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutors in a district (Section 18)?

A) The High Court

B) The Sessions Judge alone

C) The District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge

D) The State Home Department

Q26. (Analytical) If a Magistrate is not empowered to try an offender but does so in good faith, the proceeding is:

A) Curable under Section 506

B) Void under Section 507

C) Valid if no failure of justice occurred

D) Subject to the victim's consent

Q27. Under Section 472, a mercy petition must be filed by the convict within ________ days after being informed of the dismissal of their appeal by the Supreme Court.

A) 15 days

B) 30 days

C) 60 days

D) 90 days

Q28. (Logical) Can a person be released on a personal bond without sureties if they are unable to give bail for a bailable offence within seven days?

A) Yes, they are deemed indigent under Section 478

B) No, sureties are mandatory for all offences

C) Only if the offence is punishable with a fine only

D) Only with the permission of the High Court

Q29. Regarding "Plea Bargaining" (Chapter XXIII), the application can be filed for offences where the maximum punishment is:

A) Death

B) Life imprisonment

C) Up to 7 years

D) Any imprisonment except for offences against women or children

Q30. Under Section 173(3), a preliminary enquiry to ascertain a prima facie case must be completed within:

A) 7 days

B) 14 days

C) 24 hours

D) 30 days

Q31. (Scenario) A police officer seizes property suspected to be stolen but does not produce it in Court. To whom must he report the seizure under Section 503?

A) Superintendent of Police

B) Magistrate having jurisdiction

C) District Collector

D) High Court Registrar

Q32. In a summary trial, the maximum sentence of imprisonment that can be passed is:

A) One month

B) Three months

C) Six months

D) One year

Q33. (Analytical) According to Section 223, before a Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence on a complaint, he MUST:

A) Examine the informant on oath immediately

B) Give the accused an opportunity of being heard

C) Wait for a police report

D) Consult the Public Prosecutor

Q34. (Hard) Under Section 466, if an escaped convict is sentenced to a new punishment that is severer in kind (e.g., rigorous vs. simple), the new sentence shall take effect:

A) Only after the old sentence expires

B) Immediately

C) Concurrently

D) After a 30-day grace period

Q35. The "appropriate Government" for remitting a sentence where the offence is against a law to which the executive power of the Union extends is:

A) The State Government

B) The Central Government

C) The District Magistrate

D) The Supreme Court

Q36. (Situation) 'A' is accused of a crime carrying a 5-year sentence. He is 62 years old and infirm. He is cooperating with the investigation. Under Section 35(7), the police officer:

A) Can arrest him normally

B) Must obtain prior permission from an officer not below the rank of DSP

C) Cannot arrest him under any circumstances

D) Must get a warrant from a Magistrate

Q37. Under Section 356, the trial of a proclaimed offender who has absconded can be held in their absence after:

A) 30 days of the proclamation

B) 60 days of the proclamation

C) 90 days of the framing of the charge

D) Immediately upon the proclamation

Q38. (Statement Check) Statement I: A victim has no right to be heard before the Government withdraws a case. Statement II: Under BNSS, if the punishment is 7 years or more, the victim must be given an opportunity to be heard before withdrawal.

A) Only I is correct

B) Only II is correct

C) Both I and II are correct

D) Neither I nor II is correct

Q39. According to Section 187, the initial detention in police custody can be authorized by a Magistrate for a maximum total of:

A) 15 days during the whole period

B) 15 days at a time

C) 60 days

D) 90 days

Q40. (Scenario) A search is conducted in a house where a woman resides who does not appear in public. Under Section 190, the searching officer must:

A) Break open the door immediately

B) Give notice to her to withdraw and afford her reasonable facility to do so

C) Wait for a woman Magistrate to arrive

D) Conduct the search only in the presence of her husband

Q41. (Analytical) The term "investigation" under Section 2(1)(l) includes:

A) Proceedings for the collection of evidence by a Magistrate

B) Further investigation under Section 193(9)

C) Only the initial spot visit by the police

D) Only proceedings conducted after the FIR is signed

Q42. Under Section 117(2), a police officer can apply for the attachment of property derived from criminal activity with the approval of:

A) The Magistrate

B) The Superintendent of Police or Commissioner of Police

C) The District Magistrate

D) The Public Prosecutor

Q43. A person aggrieved by a Magistrate's order of disposal of property (Section 498) may appeal to:

A) The High Court

B) The Court to which appeals ordinarily lie from sentences of that Magistrate

C) The District Magistrate

D) No appeal is permitted

Q44. (Logical) If an accused is examined through electronic communication while in custody, their signature on the record must be taken within:

A) 24 hours

B) 48 hours

C) 72 hours

D) One week

Q45. Under Section 475, a life convict for an offence carrying the death penalty cannot be released unless they have served at least:

A) 10 years

B) 14 years

C) 20 years

D) 25 years

Q46. (Hard) For which of the following BNS sections is a woman Judge or Magistrate required to record the statement of the victim, as far as practicable?

A) Section 303 (Theft)

B) Section 318 (Cheating)

C) Section 64 (Rape)

D) Section 111 (Organized Crime)

Q47. According to Section 106(3), if seized property cannot be conveniently transported to Court, the officer may:

A) Abandon the property

B) Sell it on the spot

C) Give custody to a person on their executing a bond to produce it later

D) Destroy it immediately

Q48. (Situation) A High Court confirms a death sentence. Who issues the warrant to carry out the execution under Section 453?

A) The High Court

B) The Court of Session

C) The Jail Superintendent

D) The District Magistrate

Q49. (Case Law) Based on Nevada Properties (P) Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra, does a police officer have the power to "seal" immovable property under the general power of seizure?

A) Yes, it is implied

B) No, the power to seize does not include the power to attach/seal immovable property

C) Only in cases of organized crime

D) Only if the property is used to store stolen goods

Q50. Which chapter of the BNSS deals specifically with the "Limitation for Taking Cognizance"?

A) Chapter XXXV

B) Chapter XXXVI

C) Chapter XXXVII

D) Chapter XXXVIII

Answer Key – Test 1

B [S. 2(1)(y)]
B [S. 173(1)]
A [S. 23(3)
B [S. 479(1)]
B [S. 35(7)]
B [S. 176(3)]
B [S. 530]
A [S. 497(1)]
C [S. 497(5)]
B [S. 173 Notes]

B [S. 105]
B [S. 23(2)]
C [S. 502(1)]
C [S. 218 ]
C [S. 193(3)(ii)]
C [S. 507(i)]
B [S. 531(2)(a)]
C [S. 482(4)]
B [S. 106 Notes]
C [S. 250(1)]

C [S. 211]
C [S. 232 Proviso]
B [S. 501]
B [S. 25(2) Proviso]
C [S. 18(4)]
B [S. 507(l)]
B [S. 472(1)]
A [S. 478]
C [S. 289(1)]
B [S. 173(3)]

B [S. 503(1)]
B [S. 285(2)]
B [S. 223 Proviso]
B [S. 466(2)(a)]
B [S. 473(7)(a)]
B [S. 35(7)]
C [S. 356(1) Proviso]
B
A [S. 346(2) Proviso]
B [S. 44(2) cross-ref]

B [S. 2(1)(l) Notes]
B [S. 107(1)]
B [S. 500]
C [S. 316(4) Proviso]
B [S. 475]
C [S. 183(6)(a) Proviso]
C [S. 106(3)]
B [S. 453]
B [S. 106 Notes]
D [Chapter XXXVIII

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 2

Instructions: This test contains 50 Multiple Choice Questions covering the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option from A, B, C, or D. Answers are provided at the end of the test.

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 2

Q1. Under Section 2(1)(i), "electronic communication" includes information transmitted by which of the following?

A) Telephone or mobile phone only

B) Computer or audio-video player only

C) Any electronic device or wireless telecommunication device

D) Only devices registered with the State Government

Q2. Which of the following is NOT listed as a class of Criminal Court in every State under the BNSS?

A) High Court

B) Executive Magistrates

C) Judicial Magistrates of the third class

D) Courts of Session

Q3. (Logical) A Magistrate of the first class has been newly empowered to pass which of the following as a form of punishment?

A) Rigorous imprisonment up to seven years

B) Community service

C) Forfeiture of all immovable property

D) Solitary confinement for six months

Q4. According to Section 25, if a person is sentenced to consecutive terms of imprisonment for multiple offences, what is the "aggregate sentence" limit?

A) It must not exceed fourteen years

B) It must not exceed twenty years

C) There is no limit if the Court is a Court of Session

D) It must not exceed thrice the amount the Court is competent to inflict for a single offence

Q5. Every person is legally bound to assist a Magistrate or police officer reasonably demanding aid for which purpose?

A) Preventing the escape of an authorized arrestee

B) Preventing a breach of the peace

C) Preventing injury to public property

D) All of the above

Q6. (Situation) A citizen becomes aware of an intention to commit a terrorist act. Under Section 33, what is their legal obligation?

A) To inform the nearest Magistrate or police officer forthwith

B) To inform the District Collector within forty-eight hours

C) To attempt to stop the crime themselves

D) There is no legal obligation unless they are a public servant

Q7. (Complex) A police officer wishes to arrest a 62-year-old infirm person for an offence carrying a 2-year sentence. Under Section 35(7), whose prior permission is required?

A) The High Court

B) An officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police

C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate

D) No permission is required as the offence is cognizable

Q8. Regarding the arrest of a woman, which of the following statements is correct under Section 43?

A) A male police officer can touch a woman to arrest her if she resists

B) Her submission to custody on oral intimation shall be presumed

C) Arrests of women must be recorded by a drone

D) Women can only be arrested by an officer of the rank of Inspector

Q9. Under Section 48, when a person is arrested and brought to the police station, the officer must inform them of their right to:

A) Have a friend or relative informed of the arrest

B) Free legal aid from the Supreme Court

C) An immediate phone call to the Governor

D) Be released within one hour

Q10. (Hard) Section 51(3) introduces a new mandatory duty for registered medical practitioners. They must forward the examination report of an accused to the investigating officer:

A) Within twenty-four hours

B) Within seven days

C) Without any delay

D) Only upon a written request from the Magistrate

Q11. (Logical) If an accused is examined through electronic communication while in custody, within what period must their signature be taken on the record?

A) Twenty-four hours

B) Forty-eight hours

C) Seventy-two hours

D) One week

Q12. Service of a summons on a corporate body or society may be effected by serving it on:

A) Any employee of the corporation

B) The Director, Manager, or Secretary

C) The local Municipal Councillor

D) The security guard of the building

Q13. Under the BNSS, a summons bearing the image of the Court’s seal may be served by:

A) Speed post only

B) Hand delivery by the victim

C) Electronic communication

D) Public announcement via loudspeaker

Q14. (Analytical) According to Section 84, a written statement by the Court that a proclamation was duly published on a specified day is:

A) Rebuttable evidence

B) Conclusive evidence of compliance

C) Only a secondary record

D) Valid only if signed by the Governor

Q15. If a proclaimed person’s property consists of livestock or is of a perishable nature, the Court may:

A) Return it to the person's relative

B) Order its immediate sale

C) Leave it at the spot until the owner returns

D) Transfer it to a government zoo

Q16. (Situation) A Magistrate has reason to believe a person is wrongfully confined under circumstances amounting to an offence. They may issue a search-warrant under:

A) Section 94

B) Section 100

C) Section 105

D) Section 107

Q17. Under Section 105, which part of the search and seizure process must be recorded through audio-video electronic means?

A) Only the arrival of the police

B) Only the statement of the accused

C) The entire process, including the preparation of the seizure list

D) Only if the value of property exceeds one lakh rupees

Q18. (Hard) A police officer seizes property that is subject to speedy decay. If the owner is unknown and the value is less than __________, the Superintendent of Police may order its auction.

A) One hundred rupees

B) Five hundred rupees

C) One thousand rupees

D) Five thousand rupees

Q19. When the Court believes property represents "proceeds of crime," it issues a notice calling for a show cause within:

A) Seven days

B) Fourteen days

C) Thirty days

D) Sixty days

Q20. What is the maximum period for which a Court can order a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace upon conviction?

A) One year

B) Two years

C) Three years

D) Five years

Q21. (Logical) An inquiry into the truth of information for security cases (Section 135) shall be made in the manner prescribed for:

A) Summary trials

B) Warrant-cases

C) Summons-cases

D) Sessions trials

Q22. (Complex) Under the BNSS, proceedings for maintenance (Section 144) can now be taken against a person in any district where:

A) The wife resides

B) The person is found

C) The father or mother resides

D) All of the above

Q23. Which officer is NOT empowered to command an unlawful assembly to disperse under Section 148?

A) Executive Magistrate

B) Officer in charge of a police station

C) Any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector

D) Any Special Executive Magistrate who is a Constable

Q24. (Situation) An Executive Magistrate considers a trade to be injurious to the health of the community. They may make a conditional order for its removal under:

A) Section 144

B) Section 152

C) Section 163

D) Section 173

Q25. (Hard) If a Magistrate, during a dispute over land possession (S. 164), finds the dispute is actually about a right of user (S. 166), they may:

A) Dismiss the case immediately

B) Continue the proceedings as if they had started under Section 166

C) Refer the matter to a Civil Court within 24 hours

D) Start a fresh investigation from scratch

Q26. If an FIR is given by electronic communication, it must be signed by the informant to be taken on record within:

A) Twenty-four hours

B) Three days

C) Seven days

D) Thirty days

Q27. Section 193(3)(ii) mandates that a police officer shall inform the victim of the progress of investigation within:

A) Thirty days

B) Sixty days

C) Ninety days

D) One hundred and twenty days

Q28. A "preliminary enquiry" to determine if a prima facie case exists for offences punishable with 3 to 7 years must be completed within:

A) Seven days

B) Fourteen days

C) Twenty-four hours

D) Three days

Q29. (Hard) For sexual offences, the statement of the victim shall be conducted at:

A) The police station in the presence of the SHO

B) The residence of the victim or a place of their choice

C) The Magistrate's chamber only

D) A public park

Q30. Under Section 176(3), videography of the crime scene by a forensic expert is mandatory for offences punishable with:

A) Three years or more

B) Seven years or more

C) Life imprisonment only

D) Death only

Q31. Which of the following persons cannot be required to attend an investigation at any place other than their residence?

A) A male under fifteen years

B) A person above sixty years

C) A woman or a disabled person

D) All of the above

Q32. (Logical) A judicial confession recorded under Section 183 may be done by audio-video electronic means in the presence of:

A) The victim

B) The advocate of the accused

C) A news reporter

D) Only the police officer

Q33. In cases of sexual offences, the statement of the victim should, as far as practicable, be recorded by:

A) The Investigating Officer

B) A woman Magistrate

C) A male Magistrate in the presence of the SHO

D) A social worker

Q34. (Situation) A woman alleges rape. Within what time frame must she be sent for medical examination after the information is received?

A) Twelve hours

B) Twenty-four hours

C) Forty-eight hours

D) Three days

Q35. The investigation of a POCSO Act case must be completed within __________ from the date information was recorded.

A) Thirty days

B) Two months

C) Ninety days

D) Six months

Q36. In a warrant-case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate shall frame a charge within __________ from the date of the first hearing on charge.

A) Thirty days

B) Sixty days

C) Ninety days

D) One hundred and twenty days

Q37. If a single act is of such a nature that it is doubtful which of several offences the facts will constitute, the accused may be charged in the:

A) Alternative

B) Negative

C) Civil Court

D) Sessions Court only

Q38. In a Sessions Trial, an accused may prefer an application for discharge within how many days from the date of commitment?

A) Thirty days

B) Sixty days

C) Ninety days

D) Forty-five days

Q39. (Hard) A Judge shall give a judgment as soon as possible, but not later than __________ days from the completion of arguments.

A) Fourteen days

B) Thirty days

C) Sixty days

D) Ninety days

Q40. In a summary trial, the maximum sentence of imprisonment that can be passed is:

A) One month

B) Three months

C) Six months

D) One year

Q41. (Analytical) Plea bargaining does NOT apply to which of the following?

A) Offences against women or children

B) Offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country

C) Offences punishable with death or life imprisonment

D) All of the above

Q42. (Complex) A first-time offender (never convicted before) shall be released on bail if they have undergone detention for:

A) One-half of the maximum period

B) One-third of the maximum period

C) One-fourth of the maximum period

D) Two-thirds of the maximum period

Q43. Anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person accused of which BNS offence?

A) Murder

B) Organized Crime

C) Rape of a minor under eighteen years

D) Theft of government property

Q44. (Hard) A mercy petition in death sentence cases must be filed within __________ days of being informed of the dismissal of the appeal.

A) Seven days

B) Fifteen days

C) Thirty days

D) Sixty days

Q45. The Supreme Court may transfer a case or appeal if it is satisfied that such an order is:

A) Recommended by the State Government

B) Requested by the High Court

C) Expedient for the ends of justice

D) Likely to reduce the case backlog

Q46. A subordinate Court shall refer a case to the High Court if it believes a pending case involves a question as to the:

A) Credibility of a witness

B) Validity of an Act or Ordinance

C) Severity of a sentence

D) Jurisdiction of the police

Q47. (Situation) A person is dispossessed of their house by criminal intimidation. The Court may order restoration of possession:

A) Only if a civil suit is pending

B) After evicting the other person by force if necessary

C) Only if the person is a public servant

D) Only after one year of the conviction

Q48. Which of the following can be held in electronic mode under Section 530?

A) Issuance of summons and warrants

B) Examination of witnesses

C) Appellate proceedings

D) All of the above

Q49. (Hard) According to the First Schedule, what is the punishment for non-appearance in response to a proclamation under Section 84?

A) Imprisonment for 1 year and fine

B) Imprisonment for 3 years, or fine, or both

C) Community service only

D) Death penalty

Q50. (Logical) If a criminal proceeding is pending on the date the BNSS comes into force, how shall it be handled?

A) It must be restarted under the BNSS

B) It shall be disposed of in accordance with the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

C) It is automatically dismissed

D) It must be transferred to the Supreme Court

Answer Key – Test 2

Q1 – C, Q2 – C, Q3 – B, Q4 – B, Q5 – D, Q6 – A, Q7 – B, Q8 – B, Q9 – A, Q10 – C, Q11 – C, Q12 – B, Q13 – C, Q14 – B, Q15 – B, Q16 – B, Q17 – C, Q18 – B, Q19 – B, Q20 – C, Q21 – C, Q22 – D, Q23 – D, Q24 – B, Q25 – B, Q26 – B, Q27 – C, Q28 – B, Q29 – B, Q30 – B, Q31 – D, Q32 – B, Q33 – B, Q34 – B, Q35 – B, Q36 – A, Q37 – A, Q38 – B, Q39 – B, Q40 – B, Q41 – D, Q42 – B, Q43 – C, Q44 – C, Q45 – C, Q46 – B, Q47 – B, Q48 – D, Q49 – B, Q50 – B

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 3

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1.Under Section 13(1), to which authority is every Chief Judicial Magistrate subordinate?

A) The District Magistrate

B) The Sessions Judge

C) The State Government

D) The High Court exclusively

Q2. (Logic) According to the hierarchy established in Section 20, to whom are all Assistant Public Prosecutors in a district subordinate?

A) The District Magistrate

B) The Sessions Judge

C) The Director of Prosecution

D) The Superintendent of Police

Q3. Under Section 24, what is the maximum period of imprisonment that a Magistrate can award in default of payment of a fine?

A) Six months in all cases

B) One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence

C) One-half of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict

D) Not exceeding the substantive power of a Magistrate of the second class

Q4. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class is appointed to an equal office in a different local area under the same State Government. According to Section 27, he shall:

A) Lose all powers and wait for a fresh notification

B) Exercise the same powers in the new local area unless the High Court otherwise directs

C) Only exercise powers after the District Magistrate approves

D) Be deemed a Magistrate of the second class for the first six months

Q5.Under Section 34, a person residing in a village who becomes aware of an intention to commit an offence against the State outside India must inform the nearest Magistrate or police officer. For which BNS section is this duty NOT explicitly listed?

A) Section 103 (Murder)

B) Section 111 (Organised Crime)

C) Section 303 (Theft)

D) Section 113 (Terrorist Act)

Q6. According to Section 39, if a person commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of a police officer and refuses to give his name, he may be arrested. Once the name is ascertained, he shall be released on a bond, provided that if he is NOT resident in India:

A) He must remain in custody until the trial ends

B) The bond shall be secured by a surety or sureties resident in India

C) He must deposit his passport with the Magistrate

D) He can only be released by the High Court

Q7. Under Section 54, if an arrested person is to be identified by a witness, and the person is mentally or physically disabled, the process of identification:

A) Cannot take place

B) Must be conducted by a doctor

C) Shall be videographed

D) Requires the presence of the District Collector

[, S. 54 / Note: Videography is the general BNSS standard for such processes]

Q8. A police officer arrests an individual without a warrant. According to Section 56, whose legal duty is it to take reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused?

A) The State Government

B) The Magistrate

C) The person having the custody of the accused

D) The Chief Medical Officer

[ S. 56]

Q9. Section 64(1) mandates the maintenance of a register to enter details like email and phone numbers for summons service. Where is this register kept?

A) Only at the High Court

B) Only at the District Magistrate's office

C) At the police station or with the registrar in the Court

D) With the local Postmaster

[S. 64]

Q10. If a person summoned cannot be found, Section 66 allows service by leaving a duplicate with an adult member of the family. Which of the following is specifically EXCLUDED from the definition of "family" in this context?

A) A daughter-in-law

B) A son living separately

C) A servant

D) A spouse

[S. 66]

Q11. Under Section 68, when a summons is issued to a Government servant in active service, it is ordinarily sent in duplicate to:

A) The person directly via email

B) The head of the office in which the person is employed

C) The District Magistrate

D) The local police station

[S. 68]

Q12. According to Section 70, when a summons is served outside the local jurisdiction and the serving officer is not present at the hearing, which document is admissible as evidence of service?

A) A photo of the person receiving the summons

B) An affidavit made before a Magistrate

C) A verbal statement from the Postman

D) A copy of the FIR

[ S. 70]

Q13. When a warrant of arrest is issued, the Court may, under Section 73, direct by endorsement that security be taken for the person's appearance. Which detail is NOT required in such an endorsement?

A) The number of sureties

B) The amount in which they are to be bound

C) The time at which the person is to attend Court

D) The blood group of the sureties

[ S. 73]

Q14. A Chief Judicial Magistrate directs a warrant to a private person within his local jurisdiction under Section 75. For which of the following can such a warrant be issued?

A) A person accused of a bailable offence

B) A witness who failed to appear once

C) A proclaimed offender

D) A person who has already been acquitted

[S. 75]

Q15. According to Section 85, a Court must give how many days' notice in a proclamation for an absconding person to appear?

A) Not less than fifteen days

B) Not less than thirty days

C) Exactly sixty days

D) Within seven days

[ S. 85 / BNSS Timeline]

Q16. A Court orders the attachment of immovable property of a proclaimed person. If the property is land paying revenue to the State Government, the attachment shall be made through:

A) The Superintendent of Police

B) The Collector of the district in which the land is situate

C) The High Court Registrar

D) A private auctioneer

[ S. 85]

Q17. If a person whose property was attached appears within ________ years and proves they did not abscond, the property (or sale proceeds) shall be restored after deducting costs.

A) One year

B) Two years

C) Three years

D) Five years

[ S. 88]

Q18. Under Section 94, if a person is merely required to produce a document and not attend personally, how is compliance achieved?

A) They must still attend and explain the document

B) They are deemed to have complied if they cause the document to be produced

C) They must send a video message explaining the document

D) They must send their advocate with a power of attorney

[ S. 94]

Q19. Which authority has the power to make an order for the immediate restoration of an abducted female to her liberty under Section 101?

A) Only the High Court

B) A District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class

C) Any police officer above the rank of Inspector

D) The Governor

[ S. 101]

Q20. A Magistrate wishes to conduct a search of a place for which he is competent to issue a search-warrant. According to Section 108:

A) He must wait for a police report

B) He may direct the search to be made in his presence

C) He must obtain permission from the Sessions Judge

D) He cannot be present during a search

[ S. 108]

Q21. In Chapter VIII (Reciprocal Arrangements), the term "tracing" is defined as:

A) Finding the physical location of an accused

B) Determining the nature, source, disposition, movement, title or ownership of property

C) Tracking the GPS coordinates of a stolen vehicle

D) Monitoring the phone calls of a suspect

[ S. 111]

Q22. When the Central Government receives a letter of request from a contracting State for an investigation in India, it may forward it to a Magistrate to record statements. This process is treated as if:

A) It were a civil arbitration

B) The offence had been committed within India

C) It were a summary proceeding

D) The Supreme Court had already given a verdict

[S. 113]

Q23. Under Section 116, who is the lowest-ranking police officer that a Court can direct to take steps for tracing and identifying unlawfully acquired property?

A) Constable

B) Assistant Sub-Inspector

C) Sub-Inspector

D) Deputy Superintendent of Police

[ S. 116]

Q24. An order for seizure of property suspected to be proceeds of crime made under Chapter VIII has no effect unless confirmed by the Court within:

A) Seven days

B) Fourteen days

C) Thirty days

D) Sixty days

[ S. 117]

*Q25.Under Section 125, a Court of Session can order a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace upon conviction for a period not exceeding:

A) One year

B) Two years

C) Three years

D) Five years

[S. 125]

Q26. An Executive Magistrate can require a person to show cause why they should not execute a bond for good behaviour if they are disseminating matters punishable under Section 299 of the BNS. What is the maximum duration for this bond?

A) Six months

B) One year

C) Two years

D) Three years

[ S. 127 / Note: S. 127/128 are 1 year]

Q27. An Executive Magistrate receives information that a "habitual offender" (e.g., a habitual robber) is within his jurisdiction. Under Section 129, the bond for good behaviour can extend up to:

A) One year

B) Two years

C) Three years

D) The offender's lifetime

[S. 129]

Q28. Under Section 135(7), if a person is kept in detention pending an inquiry into the truth of information for security, the proceeding shall terminate if not completed within:

A) Thirty days

B) Three months

C) Six months

D) One year

[ S. 135]

Q29. If an inquiry for security is made against a child under Section 136, the bond shall be executed:

A) By the child and his parents

B) Only by the child's guardian

C) Only by his sureties

D) By the child himself with a thumb impression

[ S. 136]

Q30. Who is empowered to disperse an unlawful assembly by the use of armed forces under Section 149?

A) Any Sub-Inspector of Police

B) Any Executive Magistrate

C) The District Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate authorised by him

D) Only a Commissioned Officer of the Army

[ S. 149]

Q31. For a prosecution against a member of the armed forces for acts done while dispersing an assembly, whose sanction is required?

A) The State Government

B) The Central Government

C) The Supreme Court

D) The Chief of Defense Staff

[ S. 151]

Q32. According to the proviso in Section 157, proceedings where a person appears to show cause against a conditional order for removal of nuisance shall be completed within:

A) Thirty days

B) Sixty days

C) Ninety days (extendable to 120)

D) Six months

[S. 157]

Q33. In a dispute regarding land/water likely to cause a breach of peace, a Magistrate can treat a party as being in possession if they were forcibly dispossessed within ________ next before the police report.

A) Thirty days

B) Two months

C) Six months

D) One year

[S. 164]

Q34. A person wishes to file an FIR for a cognizable offence that happened in a different district. Under Section 173(1), the officer in charge:

A) Must direct him to the correct district

B) May refuse to record it

C) Shall record the information irrespective of the area where the offence is committed

D) Can only record it with the permission of the DSP

[ S. 173]

Q35. Under Section 176(2), if an officer decides not to investigate a case of a non-serious nature, they must forward a daily diary report to the Magistrate:

A) Every 24 hours

B) Weekly

C) Fortnightly

D) Monthly

[ S. 176]

Q36. Proviso to Section 179 states that certain persons shall NOT be required to attend an investigation at any place other than their residence. Who among the following is NOT in this exempt category?

A) A male under fifteen years

B) A male aged fifty-five years

C) A woman

D) A person with acute illness

[S. 179]

Q37.A Magistrate records a confession under Section 183. If the accused is in custody and the confession is through electronic communication, the signature must be taken within:

A) Twenty-four hours

B) Forty-eight hours

C) Seventy-two hours

D) Seven days

[S. 316 cross-ref for S. 183]

Q38. Under Section 202, if cheating is practiced via electronic communications, which Court has jurisdiction?

A) Only the Court where the sender resides

B) Only the Court where the receiver resides

C) Any Court within whose local jurisdiction such messages were sent or received

D) Only the High Court

[S. 202]

Q39. According to Section 213, a Court of Session can take cognizance of an offence without a case being committed to it ONLY if:

A) The accused is a public servant

B) The High Court gives a special order

C) It is expressly provided by the Sanhita or any other law

D) The District Magistrate requests it

[ S. 213]

Q40. Under Section 215(2), an authority to which a public servant is subordinate can order the withdrawal of a complaint, but NOT if:

A) The accused has filed a bail bond

B) The trial in the Court of first instance has been concluded

C) The victim objects

D) The High Court has taken revision

[ S. 215]

Q41. Illustration (c) of Section 238 describes a situation where 'A' is charged with cheating but the manner is not set out. If 'A' defends himself and calls witnesses, the error is:

A) Always material

B) Not material

C) Ground for immediate acquittal

D) Void

[ S. 238]

Q42. Under Section 242, what is the maximum number of offences of the same kind committed within twelve months that may be charged and tried together?

A) Three

B) Five

C) Ten

D) There is no limit

[S. 242]

Q43. Which of the following is triable summarily under Section 283 ONLY if the value of the property does not exceed twenty thousand rupees?

A) Stalking

B) Criminal Intimidation

C) Receiving stolen property

D) Insult to provoke breach of peace

[S. 283]

Q44. A first-time offender is working out a "mutually satisfactory disposition" in plea bargaining for an offence not carrying a minimum punishment. Under Section 291(d), the Court may sentence him to:

A) One-fourth of the punishment

B) One-sixth of the punishment

C) One-half of the punishment

D) Community service only

[S. 291]

Q45. If a Magistrate of the second class makes an order for the production of a prisoner under Section 302, it shall NOT be acted upon unless countersigned by:

A) The Sessions Judge

B) The District Magistrate

C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate

D) The Jail Superintendent

[S. 302]

Q46. Under Section 328, a report from an officer of the Mint used as evidence is admissible without calling the officer as a witness, but:

A) The officer can never be summoned

B) The officer cannot be summoned to produce records on which the report is based

C) The report must be signed by the Governor

D) The accused must pay for the report's validation

[ S. 328]

Q47. Under Section 343, a pardon to an accomplice can be tendered for offences punishable with imprisonment extending to:

A) Three years

B) Five years

C) Seven years or more

D) Only death

[ S. 343]

Q48. If a trial is resumed under Section 371 for a person who was of unsound mind, and the Court finds him still incapable of making a defence, the Court shall:

A) Acquit him immediately

B) Proceed with the trial regardless

C) Act according to the provisions of Section 367 or 368

D) Discharge him

[S. 371]

Q49. According to Section 417, NO appeal lies if a Magistrate of the first class passes ONLY a sentence of fine not exceeding:

A) One hundred rupees

B) Two hundred rupees

C) Five hundred rupees

D) One thousand rupees

[S. 417]

Q50. For the purposes of computing the period of limitation under Section 514, what is the "relevant date"?

A) The date the Magistrate takes cognizance

B) The date of the arrest

C) The date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR

D) The date the summons is issued

[ S. 514]

BNSS/CrPC

Answer Key – Test 3

Q1 – B, Q2 – C, Q3 – B, Q4 – B, Q5 – C, Q6 – B, Q7 – C, Q8 – C, Q9 – C, Q10 – C,

Q11 – B, Q12 – B, Q13 – D, Q14 – C, Q15 – B, Q16 – B, Q17 – B, Q18 – B, Q19 – B, Q20 – B,

Q21 – B, Q22 – B, Q23 – C, Q24 – C, Q25 – C, Q26 – B, Q27 – C, Q28 – C, Q29 – C, Q30 – C,

Q31 – B, Q32 – C, Q33 – B, Q34 – C, Q35 – C, Q36 – B, Q37 – C, Q38 – C, Q39 – C, Q40 – B,

Q41 – B, Q42 – B, Q43 – C, Q44 – B, Q45 – C, Q46 – B, Q47 – C, Q48 – C, Q49 – A, Q50 – C

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 4

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Under Section 56, whose legal duty is it to take reasonable care of the health and safety of an individual arrested without a warrant?
A) The Magistrate
B) The State Government
C) The person having the custody of the accused
D) The Chief Medical Officer

Q2. According to the hierarchy established in Section 20, to which authority are all Assistant Public Prosecutors in a district subordinate?
A) The District Magistrate
B) The Sessions Judge
C) The Director of Prosecution
D) The Superintendent of Police

Q3. Under Section 343, a pardon to an accomplice can be tendered for offences punishable with imprisonment extending to how many years?
A) Three years
B) Five years
C) Seven years or more
D) Only death

Q4. (Situation) 'A' is charged with cheating, but the manner is not set out in the charge. If 'A' defends himself and calls witnesses, according to Section 238, is this error material?
A) Always material
B) Not material, provided it did not mislead the accused
C) Ground for immediate acquittal
D) Void from the beginning

Q5. What is the maximum period of imprisonment a Magistrate can award in default of payment of a fine under Section 24?
A) Six months in all cases
B) One-fourth of the term the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence
C) One-half of the term the Magistrate is competent to inflict
D) Not exceeding three months

Q6. Under Section 13(1), to which authority is every Chief Judicial Magistrate subordinate?
A) The District Magistrate
B) The Sessions Judge
C) The State Government
D) The High Court exclusively

Q7. If a person summoned cannot be found, Section 66 allows service by leaving a duplicate with an adult member of the family. Who is specifically excluded from this definition?
A) A daughter-in-law
B) A son living separately
C) A servant
D) A spouse

Q8. According to Section 85, a Court must give how many days' notice in a proclamation for an absconding person to appear?
A) Not less than fifteen days
B) Not less than thirty days
C) Exactly sixty days
D) Within seven days

Q9. Under Section 417, no appeal lies if a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding which amount?
A) One hundred rupees
B) Two hundred rupees
C) Five hundred rupees
D) One thousand rupees

Q10. (Situation) A Judicial Magistrate of the first class is appointed to an equal office in a different local area. According to Section 27, what happens to his powers?
A) They are automatically revoked
B) He exercises the same powers unless the High Court otherwise directs
C) He must wait for a fresh State Government notification
D) He is downgraded to a Magistrate of the second class

Q11. For a prosecution against a member of the armed forces for acts done while dispersing an assembly, whose sanction is required under Section 151?
A) The State Government
B) The Central Government
C) The Supreme Court
D) The District Magistrate

Q12. Under Section 94, if a person is merely required to produce a document and not attend personally, what constitutes compliance?
A) They must still attend and explain the document
B) They are deemed to have complied if they cause the document to be produced
C) They must send a video message explaining the document
D) They must send their advocate with a power of attorney

Q13. (Hard) Under Section 34, a person residing in a village who becomes aware of an intention to commit an offence against the State outside India must inform the authorities. For which of the following is this duty NOT explicitly listed?
A) Section 103 (Murder)
B) Section 111 (Organised Crime)
C) Section 303 (Theft)
D) Section 113 (Terrorist Act)

Q14. According to Section 54, if an arrested person is to be identified by a witness and is mentally or physically disabled, what mandatory procedural step must be taken?
A) The process must be conducted in a hospital
B) It must be conducted by a doctor
C) The process shall be videographed
D) The District Collector must be present

Q15. In Chapter VIII (Reciprocal Arrangements), the term "tracing" is specifically defined as:
A) Finding the physical location of an accused
B) Determining the nature, source, disposition, movement, title or ownership of property
C) Tracking the GPS coordinates of a stolen vehicle
D) Monitoring the phone calls of a suspect

Q16. Under Section 116, who is the lowest-ranking police officer a Court can direct to take steps for tracing and identifying unlawfully acquired property?
A) Constable
B) Assistant Sub-Inspector
C) Sub-Inspector
D) Deputy Superintendent of Police

Q17. According to Section 514, what is the "relevant date" for computing the period of limitation for taking cognizance?
A) The date the Magistrate takes cognizance
B) The date of the arrest
C) The date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR
D) The date the summons is issued

Q18. Under Section 125, a Court of Session can order a person to execute a bond for keeping the peace upon conviction for a period not exceeding how many years?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years

Q19. (Logical) If an accused is examined through electronic communication while in custody, within what period must their signature be taken on the record?
A) Twenty-four hours
B) Forty-eight hours
C) Seventy-two hours
D) One week

Q20. Who is empowered under Section 149 to disperse an unlawful assembly by the use of armed forces?
A) Any Sub-Inspector of Police
B) Any Executive Magistrate
C) The District Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate authorised by him
D) Only a Commissioned Officer of the Army

Q21. Under Section 68, when a summons is issued to a Government servant in active service, it is ordinarily sent in duplicate to whom?
A) The person directly via email
B) The head of the office in which the person is employed
C) The District Magistrate
D) The local police station

Q22. (Hard) An Executive Magistrate can require a bond for good behaviour if a person is disseminating matters punishable under Section 299 of the BNS. What is the maximum duration of this bond under Section 127?
A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years

Q23. In a dispute regarding land or water likely to cause a breach of peace, a Magistrate can treat a party as being in possession if they were forcibly dispossessed within how many months before the police report?
A) Thirty days
B) Two months
C) Six months
D) One year

Q24. According to Section 70, when a summons is served outside the local jurisdiction and the serving officer is not present, which document is admissible as evidence of service?
A) A photo of the person receiving the summons
B) An affidavit made before a Magistrate
C) A verbal statement from the Postman
D) A copy of the FIR

Q25. (Complex) An order for seizure of property suspected to be proceeds of crime made under Chapter VIII has no effect unless confirmed by the Court within how many days?
A) Seven days
B) Fourteen days
C) Thirty days
D) Sixty days

Q26. Under Section 101, which authority has the power to make an order for the immediate restoration of an abducted female to her liberty?
A) Only the High Court
B) A District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class
C) Any police officer above the rank of Inspector
D) The Governor

Q27. When a warrant of arrest is issued, and the Court directs that security be taken under Section 73, which of the following is NOT a required detail in the endorsement?
A) The number of sureties
B) The amount in which they are to be bound
C) The time at which the person is to attend Court
D) The blood group of the sureties

Q28. (Situation) An Executive Magistrate receives information that a "habitual offender" is within his jurisdiction. Under Section 129, the bond for good behaviour can extend up to how many years?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) The offender's lifetime

Q29. Under Section 108, if a Magistrate is competent to issue a search-warrant for a place, can he direct the search to be made in his presence?
A) No, he must wait for a police report
B) Yes, he may direct the search to be made in his presence
C) Only if the Sessions Judge permits
D) Only if the value of property exceeds one lakh rupees

Q30. (Analytical) A Chief Judicial Magistrate directs a warrant to a private person under Section 75. For which of the following can such a warrant be issued?
A) A person accused of a bailable offence
B) A witness who failed to appear once
C) A proclaimed offender
D) A person who has already been acquitted

Q31. According to the proviso in Section 157, proceedings regarding a conditional order for removal of nuisance shall be completed within how many days?
A) Thirty days
B) Sixty days
C) Ninety days (extendable to 120)
D) Six months

Q32. Under Section 173(1), if a person wishes to file an FIR for a cognizable offence that happened in a different district, what is the duty of the officer?
A) Direct him to the correct district
B) Refuse to record it
C) Shall record the information irrespective of the area where the offence is committed
D) Record it only with the permission of the DSP

Q33. (Hard) If a Magistrate of the second class makes an order for the production of a prisoner under Section 302, it shall not be acted upon unless countersigned by whom?
A) The Sessions Judge
B) The District Magistrate
C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate
D) The Jail Superintendent

Q34. Under Section 176(2), if an officer decides NOT to investigate a case of a non-serious nature, they must forward a daily diary report to the Magistrate at what frequency?
A) Every 24 hours
B) Weekly
C) Fortnightly
D) Monthly

Q35. (Complex) Which of the following is triable summarily under Section 283 only if the value of the property does not exceed twenty thousand rupees?
A) Stalking
B) Criminal Intimidation
C) Receiving stolen property
D) Insult to provoke breach of peace

Q36. Under Section 113, when the Central Government forwards a letter of request from a contracting State to a Magistrate, the investigation is treated as if:
A) It were a civil arbitration
B) The offence had been committed within India
C) It were a summary proceeding
D) The Supreme Court had already given a verdict

Q37. (Analytical) Under Section 202, if cheating is practiced via electronic communications, which Court has jurisdiction?
A) Only the Court where the sender resides
B) Only the Court where the receiver resides
C) Any Court within whose local jurisdiction such messages were sent or received
D) Only the High Court

Q38. According to Section 135(7), if a person is in detention pending an inquiry into the truth of information for security, the proceeding terminates if not completed within:
A) Thirty days
B) Three months
C) Six months
D) One year

Q39. Under Section 39, if a non-resident of India is arrested for refusing to give his name, his bail bond must be secured by whom?
A) A local bank guarantee
B) A surety or sureties resident in India
C) The consulate of his country
D) A cash deposit of 50,000 rupees

Q40. According to Section 213, a Court of Session can take cognizance of an offence without a case being committed to it ONLY in which circumstance?
A) The accused is a public servant
B) The High Court gives a special order
C) It is expressly provided by the Sanhita or any other law
D) The District Magistrate requests it

Q41. Under Section 215(2), an authority to which a public servant is subordinate can order the withdrawal of a complaint, but NOT if:
A) The accused has filed a bail bond
B) The trial in the Court of first instance has been concluded
C) The victim objects
D) The High Court has taken revision

Q42. (Situation) A first-time offender is working out a "mutually satisfactory disposition" in plea bargaining. Under Section 291(d), the Court may sentence him to what fraction of the punishment?
A) One-fourth
B) One-sixth
C) One-half
D) Community service only

Q43. Under Section 242, what is the maximum number of offences of the same kind committed within twelve months that may be charged and tried at one trial?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Ten
D) No limit

Q44. (Logical) If an inquiry for security is made against a child under Section 136, who must execute the bond?
A) The child and his parents
B) The child's guardian
C) Only his sureties
D) The child himself with a thumb impression

Q45. Under Section 64(1), which specific location is mandated to maintain a register for entering details like email and phone numbers for summons service?
A) The High Court
B) The District Magistrate's office
C) The police station or with the registrar in the Court
D) The local Post Office

Q46. (Hard) If a trial is resumed under Section 371 for a person who was of unsound mind, and the Court finds him still incapable of defence, how must the Court act?
A) Acquit him immediately
B) Proceed with the trial regardless
C) Act according to the provisions of Section 367 or 368
D) Discharge him

Q47. (Analytical) Under Section 328, a report from an officer of the Mint used as evidence is admissible, but what restriction applies?
A) The officer can never be summoned
B) The officer cannot be summoned to produce records on which the report is based
C) The report must be signed by the Governor
D) The accused must pay for the report's validation

Q48. (Situation) A Court orders the attachment of land paying revenue to the State Government. According to Section 85, how shall the attachment be made?
A) Through the Superintendent of Police
B) Through the Collector of the district
C) Through the High Court Registrar
D) Through a private auctioneer

Q49. (Hard) Under Section 466, if an escaped convict is sentenced to a new punishment that is severer in kind (e.g., rigorous vs. simple), when does the new sentence take effect?
A) After the old sentence expires
B) Immediately
C) Concurrently
D) After a 30-day grace period

Q50. (Hard) If a person whose property was attached appears and proves they did not abscond, within how many years must they appear to claim the proceeds under Section 88?
A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Five years

Answer Key – Test 4

1. C | 2. C | 3. C | 4. B | 5. B | 6. B | 7. C | 8. B | 9. A | 10. B11. B | 12. B | 13. C | 14. C | 15. B | 16. C | 17. C | 18. C | 19. C | 20. C21. B | 22. B | 23. B | 24. B | 25. C | 26. B | 27. D | 28. C | 29. B | 30. C31. C | 32. C | 33. C | 34. C | 35. C | 36. B | 37. C | 38. C | 39. B | 40. C41. B | 42. B | 43. B | 44. C | 45. C | 46. C | 47. B | 48. B | 49. B | 50. B

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 5

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Under Section 103(3), if it is necessary to cause a female to be searched during the search of a closed place, who must conduct the search?

A) Any police officer present on the scene B) Another female with strict regard to decency C) A registered medical practitioner in a hospital D) The owner or occupant of the searched place irrespective of gender

Q2. According to the first proviso of Section 53(1), which of the following is specifically included as an update in the BNSS regarding the examination of an arrested person?

A) The requirement to film the entire examination on a DSLR B) Additional medical examination of the arrested person in police custody C) The mandatory presence of a Judicial Magistrate D) A mandatory psychiatric evaluation for all cognizable offences

Q3. Under Section 173(1), if information regarding an offence of rape is given by the victim, who is mandated to record such information?

A) The officer in charge of the police station (SHO) B) A woman police officer or any woman officer C) A Magistrate of the first class directly D) A registered medical practitioner at a government hospital

Q4. (Logical) According to Section 72(2), a warrant of arrest issued by a Court shall remain in force until which of the following occurs?

A) The expiry of thirty days from the date of issue B) The end of the financial year in which it was issued C) It is cancelled by the Court which issued it, or until it is executed D) The accused is formally declared a proclaimed offender

Q5. To which authority is every Chief Judicial Magistrate subordinate under the provisions of Section 13(1)?

A) The District Magistrate B) The Sessions Judge C) The State Government’s Home Department D) The High Court exclusively

Q6. (Analytical) Under Section 84(4), a written statement by the Court that a proclamation was duly published on a specified day in a specified manner shall be:

A) Rebuttable evidence that may be challenged by the accused B) Conclusive evidence that the requirements of the section have been complied with C) Considered a secondary record only D) Valid only if it is countersigned by the District Magistrate

Q7. What is the mandatory timeline for a Magistrate to pass a final order for the disposal of property after documentation (like statement, photos, or videos) is complete under Section 497?

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q8. (Situation) A summons is issued to a Government servant in active service. According to Section 68, the Court shall ordinarily send it in duplicate to whom?

A) The servant directly via their official email address B) The head of the office in which such person is employed C) The District Magistrate of the area where the servant resides D) The local police station having jurisdiction over the office

Q9. Under Section 181, a statement made by a person to a police officer in the course of an investigation, if reduced to writing, shall:

A) Be signed by the person making it immediately B) Not be signed by the person making it C) Be verified by two independent witnesses on the spot D) Be deemed a dying declaration in all cases

Q10. (Hard) According to Section 336, if a scientific expert who prepared a report is retired or dead, the Court shall secure the presence of whom to give a deposition on such document?

A) No one; the report shall be discarded as hearsay B) The successor officer holding that post at the time of deposition C) The head of the department where the expert worked D) The police officer who submitted the report to the expert

Q11. Under Section 263, in a warrant-case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate shall frame the charge within how many days from the date of the first hearing on charge?

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q12. (Logical) If an Executive Magistrate considers that the public is at imminent risk of serious injury pending an inquiry into a nuisance, they may issue an injunction under which section?

A) Section 144 B) Section 161 C) Section 163 D) Section 173

Q13. Service of a summons on a corporate body or society may be effected by serving it on which of the following?

A) Any employee present at the registered office B) The Director, Manager, or Secretary C) The local Municipal Councillor of the ward D) The security agency guarding the corporate premises

Q14. (Analytical) According to Section 4(2), all offences under laws other than the BNS shall be investigated and tried according to BNSS provisions, but subject to:

A) The prior approval of the High Court B) Any enactment for the time being in force regulating the manner or place of dealing with such offences C) The absolute discretion of the Director of Prosecution D) The rules of natural justice only

Q15. Under Section 41, when may a Magistrate arrest a person without a warrant?

A) If any offence is committed within his local jurisdiction and in his presence B) Only if a cognizable offence is committed anywhere in the State C) Only when a police officer is not available D) Only if the person is a woman or a child

Q16. (Situation) A Magistrate conducts an inquiry into a dispute over land likely to cause a breach of peace. If the crop on the land is subject to speedy and natural decay, the Magistrate may order its sale under:

A) Section 144 B) Section 164(8) C) Section 173 D) Section 505

Q17. Under Section 230, the Magistrate must furnish copies of the police report and other documents to the accused and the victim within how many days from the date of appearance?

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q18. Which authority prepares the panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutors in a district under Section 18(4)?

A) The High Court in consultation with the State Government B) The District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge C) The Sessions Judge alone D) The Superintendent of Police in consultation with the DM

Q19. (Hard) For which of the following categories of offences is it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and for the process to be videographed under Section 176(3)?

A) Offences punishable with 3 years or more B) Offences punishable with 7 years or more C) Only in cases of murder and gang rape D) All cognizable offences regardless of punishment

Q20. According to Section 226, if a Magistrate finds no sufficient ground for proceeding after considering the result of an investigation, he shall:

A) Discharge the accused without recording reasons B) Dismiss the complaint and briefly record his reasons for so doing C) Direct the informant to file a fresh civil suit ) Issue a warrant for the arrest of the complainant

Q21. (Logical) Under Section 135(6), an inquiry into the truth of information for security cases must be completed within how many months from its commencement?

A) Three months B) Six months C) Nine months D) Twelve months

Q22. Under Section 105, which of the following is the "preferred" device for recording search and seizure through audio-video electronic means?

A) A professional CCTV system B) A mobile phone C) A dedicated body-worn camera ) A digital tape recorder

Q23. (Analytical) According to Section 241, what is the general rule regarding the trial of distinct offences of which a person is accused?

A) They must all be tried in a single combined trial B) There shall be a separate charge for every distinct offence and every such charge shall be tried separately C) Only the most serious offence should be charged to save time D) The accused may choose which charge to be tried for first

Q24. (Situation) A person is dispossessed of their house by criminal force. Under Section 502, the Trial Court may order restoration of possession at the time of conviction or within:

A) Seven days thereafter B) Fourteen days thereafter C) Thirty days thereafter D) Sixty days thereafter

Q25. Under Section 148, which of the following officers is NOT empowered to command an unlawful assembly to disperse?

A) Executive Magistrate B) Officer in charge of a police station C) Any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector D) A Police Constable on beat duty

Q26. (Complex) Under Section 24, what is the maximum period of imprisonment that a Magistrate can award in default of payment of a fine?

A) Six months in all cases B) One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence C) One-half of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict D) Not exceeding the substantive power of a Magistrate of the second class

Q27. In a trial before a Court of Session, the Public Prosecutor shall open the case under Section 249 by describing the charge and stating:

A) The names of all defense witnesses B) By what evidence he expects to prove the guilt of the accused C) The amount of compensation the victim expects D) The date the accused was first detained

Q28. (Hard) According to Section 219(6), no Court shall take cognizance of rape by a man with his own wife (the wife being under 18) if how much time has elapsed from the date of the offence?

A) Three months B) Six months C) One year D) Three years

Q29. Under Section 343, a pardon to an accomplice may be tendered for offences punishable with imprisonment extending to how many years?

A) Three years B) Five years C) Seven years or more D) Only death

Q30. (Analytical) According to Section 514, what is the "relevant date" for computing the period of limitation for taking cognizance?

A) The date the Magistrate takes cognizance B) The date of the arrest of the accused C) The date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR D) The date the first summons is served

Q31. Which authority has the power under Section 523 to make rules regarding the licensing and fees for petition-writers in subordinate Criminal Courts?

A) The State Government alone B) The High Court with the previous approval of the State Government C) The District Magistrate of each district D) The Bar Council of India

Q32. (Situation) A man is accused of cheating practised by means of electronic communications sent from Delhi to a victim in Mumbai. Where can the offence be tried under Section 202?

A) Only in Delhi where the messages were sent B) Only in Mumbai where the messages were received C) Either in Delhi or Mumbai (any Court within whose local jurisdiction such messages were sent or received) D) Only in a Metropolitan Court

Q33. Under Section 59, to whom must officers in charge of police stations report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant?

A) The High Court Registrar B) The District Magistrate (or Sub-divisional Magistrate if directed) C) The Public Prosecutor D) The Sessions Judge

Q34. (Logical) According to Section 183(2), before recording a confession, a Magistrate must explain to the person that:

A) They are legally bound to make a confession B) If they confess, their sentence will be reduced by half C) They are not bound to make a confession and that, if they do, it may be used as evidence against them D) The confession must be made in the presence of the victim

Q35. Within what time frame must a victim of rape be sent for medical examination after the information is received, according to Section 184?

A) Twelve hours B) Twenty-four hours C) Forty-eight hours D) Three days

Q36. (Analytical) Under Section 179, which of the following persons is EXEMPT from attending an investigation at any place other than their residence?

A) A male under fifteen years or above sixty years B) A woman C) A mentally or physically disabled person D) All of the above

Q37. (Hard) According to Section 136, if a security inquiry is conducted against a child, who is responsible for executing the bond?

A) Both the child and his parents B) Only the child's guardian C) Only the child's surety or sureties D) The child himself using a thumb impression

Q38. Under Section 475, a person sentenced to life imprisonment for an offence where death is also a possible punishment shall NOT be released unless he has served at least:

A) Seven years B) Ten years C) Fourteen years D) Twenty years

Q39. (Situation) A vacancy arises in the office of the Sessions Judge. Which authority may make arrangements for the disposal of urgent applications by an Additional Sessions Judge or CJM under Section 8(5)?

A) The State Government B) The High Court C) The District Magistrate D) The outgoing Sessions Judge

Q40. Under Section 106(3), if seized property cannot be conveniently transported to Court, the officer may give custody to a person on their executing a bond to:

A) Sell the property and deposit the cash in Court B) Produce the property before the Court as and when required C) Keep the property for their own use until the trial ends D) Destroy the property if it remains unclaimed for 30 days

Q41. (Analytical) In reciprocal arrangements under Chapter VIII, which authority is appointed by the Court to manage property seized or forfeited?

A) The Superintendent of Police B) The District Magistrate of the area C) The High Court Registrar D) A private receiver

Q42. According to Section 23(3), a Magistrate of the second class has been newly empowered to pass which of the following as a form of sentence?

A) Rigorous imprisonment for three years B) Community service C) Forfeiture of immovable property D) A fine of one lakh rupees

Q43. (Logical) If a Judicial Magistrate of the first class is appointed to an equal office in a different local area under the same State Government, according to Section 27, they:

A) Must wait for a fresh State Government notification to exercise powers B) Exercise the same powers in the new local area unless the High Court otherwise directs C) Are downgraded to a Magistrate of the second class for six months D) Lose all powers and must be re-trained

Q44. Under Section 193(3)(ii), within how many days is a police officer mandated to inform the victim or informant of the progress of the investigation?

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q45. (Situation) A High Court confirms a death sentence submitted by a Court of Session. Which authority is responsible for carrying the order into effect by issuing a warrant under Section 453?

A) The High Court B) The Court of Session C) The Jail Superintendent D) The District Magistrate

Q46. Under Section 218, the appropriate Government must decide on a request for sanction to prosecute a public servant within how many days?

A) Sixty days B) Ninety days C) One hundred and twenty days D) One hundred and eighty days

Q47. (Analytical) According to the notes in the Sanhita, registration of an FIR for a cognizable offence is mandatory if the information discloses such an offence. Which case is cited for this?

A) Manoj v. State of Haryana B) Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P. C) P. Chidambaram v. CBI D) Arvind Singh v. State of Maharashtra

Q48. (Logical) If an investigation is pending on June 30, 2024, one day before the BNSS comes into force, how must it be handled according to Section 531?

A) It must be restarted under the BNSS B) It shall be disposed of, continued, held, or made in accordance with the CrPC, 1973 C) It must be transferred to a Special Magistrate D) it is automatically stayed for ninety days

Q49. Under Section 113, when the Central Government receives a letter of request from a contracting State for an investigation in India, it is treated as if:

A) It were a civil arbitration B) The offence had been committed within India C) It were a summary proceeding D) The Supreme Court had already given a final verdict

Q50. Which section of the BNSS mandates that all trials, inquiries, and proceedings may be held in electronic mode?

A) Section 482 B) Section 528 C) Section 530 D) Section 531

Answer Key – Test 5

1. B | 2. B | 3. B | 4. C | 5. B | 6. B | 7. C | 8. B | 9. B | 10. B11. B | 12. B | 13. B | 14. B | 15. A | 16. B | 17. B | 18. B | 19. B | 20. B21. B | 22. B | 23. B | 24. C | 25. D | 26. B | 27. B | 28. C | 29. C | 30. C31. B | 32. C | 33. B | 34. C | 35. B | 36. D | 37. C | 38. C | 39. B | 40. B41. B | 42. B | 43. B | 44. C | 45. B | 46. C | 47. B | 48. B | 49. B | 50. C

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 6

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Under Section 20(2), which of the following eligibility criteria is mandatory for a person to be appointed as a Director of Prosecution or a Deputy Director of Prosecution?

A) Practice as an advocate for at least ten years in concurrence with the Chief Justice B) Practice as an advocate for at least fifteen years or having been a Sessions Judge C) Practice as an advocate for at least seven years or having been a Magistrate of the first class D) Practice as an advocate for at least twenty years and approval from the High Court

Q2. According to Section 20, what are the specific functions assigned to the Deputy Director of Prosecution regarding the scrutiny of police reports?

A) To monitor cases punishable with less than seven years imprisonment B) To monitor and expedite cases punishable with ten years or more, or death C) To examine police reports and monitor cases punishable with seven years or more but less than ten years D) To exercise administrative control over the Home Department in the State

Q3. Under the newly inserted Section 33, every person aware of the intention to commit certain offences must give information to the authorities. For which of the following BNS offences is this duty explicitly mandated?

A) Section 113 (Terrorist Act) B) Section 303 (Theft) C) Section 318 (Cheating) D) Section 356 (Defamation)

Q4. (Hard) According to Section 34, an officer employed in connection with the affairs of a village must report the resort to or passage through the village of any person he suspects to be:

A) A notorious receiver or vendor of stolen property B) A person planning to commit a non-cognizable offence C) A robber, escaped convict, or proclaimed offender D) A member of a political party not registered in the State

Q5. (Analytical) Under Section 39, if a person who is NOT resident in India is arrested for refusing to give his name and residence after committing a non-cognizable offence, his bail bond:

A) Must be accompanied by a cash deposit of one lakh rupees B) Shall be secured by a surety or sureties resident in India C) Can only be accepted if he surrenders his travel documents D) Is not permissible, and he must remain in custody until the trial ends

Q6. Under Section 54, if an arrested person who is mentally or physically disabled is to be identified by a witness, what is the mandatory requirement for the identification process?

A) It must be conducted inside a government hospital B) It must be conducted by a Judicial Magistrate of the first class C) The process of identification shall be videographed D) The person must be identified by at least three independent witnesses

Q7. (Complex) Which of the following duties was newly inserted in Section 51(3) regarding the medical examination of an accused?

A) The medical practitioner must record the examination on a mobile phone B) The medical practitioner must forward the report to the investigating officer without any delay C) The examination must include DNA profiling in every cognizable case D) The report must be signed by the accused before it is sent to the officer

Q8. Service of a summons on a "firm or other unincorporated association of persons" under Section 65 may be effected by serving it on:

A) Any partner or member of the association residing in the district B) The person in charge of the management of the firm's central office in India C) The local registrar of companies or societies D) The most senior employee of the firm present at the time of service

Q9. (Logical) Under Section 68, when a summons is served on a Government servant, the head of the office must return the summons to the Court with:

A) A copy of the servant's employment contract B) The endorsement required by Section 64 under his signature C) A certificate from the District Magistrate confirming the servant's identity D) A digital photograph of the servant receiving the duplicate

Q10. (Hard) According to Section 84(4), a written statement by the Court regarding the publication of a proclamation shall be:

A) Conclusive evidence that the requirements of the section have been complied with B) Rebuttable evidence that the accused may challenge during the trial C) Admissible only if supported by an affidavit from the serving officer D) Void if the proclamation was not published in a national newspaper

Q11. (Analytical) When a Court orders the attachment of land paying revenue to the State Government under Section 85, who is the authority responsible for the attachment?

A) The Superintendent of Police B) The Collector of the district in which the land is situate C) The Sub-divisional Magistrate D) The High Court Registrar

Q12. If a person whose property was attached appears within ________ years from the date of attachment and proves they did not abscond, the property or its sale proceeds shall be restored to them under Section 88.

A) One year B) Two years C) Three years D) Five years

Q13. Under Section 101, which of the following authorities is NOT empowered to make an order for the immediate restoration of an abducted woman to her liberty?

A) District Magistrate B) Sub-divisional Magistrate C) Magistrate of the first class D) Chief Judicial Magistrate

Q14. (Hard) Under Section 116, who is the lowest-ranking police officer that a Court can direct to take steps for "tracing and identifying" property derived from criminal activity?

A) Constable B) Assistant Sub-Inspector C) Sub-Inspector D) Deputy Superintendent of Police

Q15. (Logical) An order for the seizure or attachment of property suspected to be "proceeds of crime" under Section 117 has no effect unless:

A) It is approved by the State Home Secretary within seven days B) It is confirmed by an order of the Court within thirty days C) The property value exceeds ten lakh rupees D) The accused is present during the seizure

Q16. (Complex) Under Section 125(2), a Court can require security for keeping the peace upon conviction for several BNS offences. Which of the following is specifically EXCLUDED from this category?

A) Any offence punishable under Chapter XI of the BNS (Public Tranquillity) B) An offence punishable under sub-section (1) of Section 193 of the BNS C) An offence of criminal intimidation D) An offence involving the use of criminal force

Q17. Under Section 129, an Executive Magistrate can require a bond for good behaviour from a person who habitually protects or harbours thieves. What is the maximum duration for this bond?

A) One year B) Two years C) Three years D) Five years

Q18. (Hard) Under Section 135(7), if a person is kept in detention pending an inquiry into the truth of information for security, the proceeding shall terminate if not completed within:

A) Thirty days B) Three months C) Six months D) One year

Q19. (Analytical) According to judicial notes on Section 144 (BNSS S. 163 counterpart), what is the legal position regarding the maintenance right of a stepfather?

A) A stepfather has no right to maintenance from a stepson B) A stepson is obligated to provide maintenance if the stepfather fulfilled the same responsibility as a biological father C) Only a biological mother has a right to maintenance after remarriage D) Maintenance for step-parents is exclusively a civil matter

Q20. Under Section 145(1)(d), a maintenance proceeding under Section 144 can now be taken against a person in any district where:

A) His wife or children reside B) The cause of action first arose C) His father or mother resides D) He was last employed

Q21. (Logical) Under Section 149, who is empowered to disperse an unlawful assembly by the use of armed forces?

A) Any Commissioned Officer of the Army B) Any police officer not below the rank of Inspector C) The District Magistrate or any other Executive Magistrate authorised by him D) Only the State Home Minister

Q22. (Hard) According to the proviso in Section 157, proceedings where a person appears to show cause against a conditional order for removal of nuisance must be completed within:

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q23. (Analytical) In a dispute regarding land or water under Section 164, a Magistrate can treat a party as being in possession if they were forcibly and wrongfully dispossessed within ________ before the date of the police report.

A) Thirty days B) Two months C) Six months D) One year

Q24. Under Section 173(1)(ii), if information regarding a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, within how many days must it be signed by the informant to be taken on record?

A) Twenty-four hours B) Three days C) Seven days D) Fourteen days

Q25. (Hard) Under Section 176(3), for which category of offences is it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and for the process to be videographed?

A) Offences punishable with three years or more B) Offences punishable with seven years or more C) Only in cases of murder and gang rape D) All cognizable offences

Q26. (Analytical) Under Section 179, which of the following persons is NOT exempt from being required to attend an investigation at any place other than their residence?

A) A male person aged sixty-five years B) A woman C) A person with acute illness D) A male person aged eighteen years

Q27. According to Section 183(1), a confession or statement recorded by audio-video electronic means may be done in the presence of:

A) The victim's parents B) The advocate of the person accused of the offence C) A social worker of the locality D) A Forensic Expert

Q28. Under Section 184, within what time frame must a victim of rape be sent for medical examination after the information is received?

A) Twelve hours B) Twenty-four hours C) Forty-eight hours D) Three days

Q29. (Hard) Under Section 184(6), the registered medical practitioner must forward the rape victim's medical report to the investigating officer within a period of:

A) Twenty-four hours B) Three days C) Seven days D) Fourteen days

Q30. (Analytical) Under Section 202, where an offence of "cheating" is practised by means of electronic communications, where may the offence be inquired into or tried?

A) Only in the district where the accused resides B) Only in the district where the victim resides C) Any Court within whose local jurisdiction such messages were sent or were received D) Only in the High Court of the State where the server is located

Q31. According to Section 210(2), which authority has the power to specially empower a Magistrate of the second class to take cognizance of offences?

A) The State Government B) The Chief Judicial Magistrate C) The High Court D) The Sessions Judge

Q32. (Complex) Under Section 215, no Court shall take cognizance of certain offences against public justice (like Section 229 BNS) EXCEPT on the complaint in writing of:

A) The victim or their legal heir B) The Court in which the offence was committed or a superior Court C) The District Magistrate or the Superintendent of Police D) Any person who witnessed the false evidence being given

Q33. Under Section 218, no sanction is required for prosecuting a public servant for certain BNS offences. Which of the following is in this exempt category?

A) Section 111 (Organized Crime) B) Section 103 (Murder) C) Section 64 (Rape) D) Section 303 (Theft)

Q34. (Hard) Under Section 222, when defamation is alleged against the President or a Minister in respect of public functions, a Court of Session may take cognizance upon:

A) A police report following a mandatory 90-day investigation B) A complaint in writing made by the Public Prosecutor C) A suo motu order from the High Court D) A complaint made by the victim's relative

Q35. (Analytical) According to the proviso in Section 232, committal proceedings to a Court of Session must be completed within days, extendable up to days for reasons to be recorded.

A) 60 days; 90 days B) 90 days; 120 days C) 30 days; 60 days D) 45 days; 75 days

Q36. Under Section 242, what is the maximum number of offences of the same kind committed within twelve months that may be charged and tried together in one trial?

A) Three B) Five C) Ten D) There is no limit

Q37. (Logical) According to Section 243, if more offences than one are committed by the same person in one series of acts so connected as to form the "same transaction":

A) He can only be tried for the most serious offence B) He may be charged with and tried for every such offence in one trial C) Each offence must be tried by a different Magistrate D) He must be acquitted of all minor offences

Q38. In a trial before a Court of Session, an accused person may prefer an application for discharge under Section 250 within ________ days from the date of commitment.

A) Thirty days B) Forty-five days C) Sixty days D) Ninety days

Q39. Under Section 251, the Sessions Judge must frame a charge in writing against the accused within a period of ________ days from the date of the first hearing on charge.

A) Thirty days B) Forty-five days C) Sixty days D) Ninety days

Q40. (Hard) According to Section 258, a Judge shall give a judgment in a Sessions case within days from the completion of arguments, extendable to days.

A) 14 days; 30 days B) 30 days; 45 days C) 60 days; 90 days D) 15 days; 30 days

Q41. Under Section 263, in a warrant-case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate must frame the charge within ________ days from the date of the first hearing on charge.

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q42. Which of the following offences is triable "summarily" under Section 283 ONLY if the value of the property does not exceed twenty thousand rupees?

A) Criminal Intimidation B) Receiving or retaining stolen property C) Insult to provoke breach of peace D) All of the above

Q43. (Hard) A person accused of an offence may file an application for plea bargaining under Section 290 within ________ days from the date of framing of charge.

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q44. (Analytical) Under Section 316, if an accused in custody is examined through electronic communication, within what period must his signature be taken on the record?

A) Twenty-four hours B) Forty-eight hours C) Seventy-two hours D) One week

Q45. Under Section 330, a party to a trial must admit or deny the genuineness of documents supplied to them within ________ days.

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q46. (Hard) According to Section 336, if a scientific expert who prepared a report is transferred or retired, the Court ________ secure the presence of the successor officer to give a deposition.

A) May, in its discretion B) Shall C) Cannot, as it is hearsay D) Only if the expert is dead

Q47. (Complex) Under Section 356, the trial of a proclaimed offender who has absconded can be held in their absence ONLY AFTER a period of ________ has lapsed from the date of framing of the charge.

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q48. In a case of contempt committed in the presence of the Court (Section 384), what is the maximum sentence and fine the Court may impose?

A) Fine up to 500 rupees and simple imprisonment for 15 days B) Fine up to 1,000 rupees and simple imprisonment for one month C) Fine up to 5,000 rupees and rigorous imprisonment for three months D) Community service only

Q49. (Analytical) Under Section 472, the Central Government must make its recommendation to the President on a mercy petition within ________ days of receiving comments from the State Government.

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q50. For the purpose of computing the "period of limitation" for taking cognizance under Section 514, what is the "relevant date" defined in the explanation?

A) The date the Magistrate takes cognizance B) The date the accused is arrested C) The date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR D) The date the investigation report is submitted

Answer Key – Test 6

1. B | 2. C | 3. A | 4. C | 5. B | 6. C | 7. B | 8. B | 9. B | 10. A11. B | 12. B | 13. D | 14. C | 15. B | 16. B | 17. C | 18. C | 19. B | 20. C21. C | 22. C | 23. B | 24. B | 25. B | 26. D | 27. B | 28. B | 29. C | 30. C31. C | 32. B | 33. C | 34. B | 35. B | 36. B | 37. B | 38. C | 39. C | 40. B41. B | 42. B | 43. C | 44. C | 45. C | 46. B | 47. C | 48. B | 49. B | 50. C

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 7

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of a successor-in-office under Section 29:

Statement I: In case of any doubt regarding the successor of a Sessions Judge, the High Court shall determine the successor by a written order.

Statement II: In case of any doubt regarding the successor of a Magistrate, the Chief Judicial Magistrate or the District Magistrate shall determine the successor in writing.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q2. Assertion (A): The process of search and seizure under Section 105 must be recorded via audio-video electronic means.

Reason (R): The Sanhita prioritizes the use of mobile phones as the preferred device for such recordings to ensure transparency.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q3. Regarding the eligibility of Prosecuting Officers under Section 20:

Statement I: A Director of Prosecution must have at least ten years of practice as an advocate.

Statement II: A Deputy Director of Prosecution is appointed to monitor cases punishable with seven years or more but less than ten years.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q4. Assertion (A): A summons may be served on a corporate body by leaving it with the Director or Manager.

Reason (R): Section 65 provides that service on a corporation is also valid if sent by registered post to the Chief Officer of the corporation in India.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q5. Consider the legal position of maintenance rights based on judicial notes on Section 144:

Statement I: A biological mother is entitled to maintenance from her son even if she remarries.

Statement II: A stepson is obligated to maintain a stepfather only if the stepfather fulfilled the responsibilities of a biological father.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q6. Regarding the use of force to disperse assemblies under Chapter XI:

Statement I: An Executive Magistrate or an officer in charge of a police station may command an unlawful assembly to disperse.

Statement II: Any police officer, including a Constable, is empowered to use armed forces to disperse such an assembly if it refuses to move.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q7. Assertion (A): An FIR given via electronic communication is not taken on record until it is physically signed.

Reason (R): Section 173(1)(ii) mandates that electronic information must be signed by the informant within three days to be formally recorded.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the "Discharge" process in a Sessions Trial (Section 250):

Statement I: The accused must prefer an application for discharge within sixty days from the date of the commitment of the case.

Statement II: The Judge is not required to record reasons if he decides to discharge the accused.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q9. Assertion (A): A person can be tried in a single trial for any number of offences of the same kind committed within twelve months.

Reason (R): Section 242(1) limits the number of such offences to a maximum of five for a single trial.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q10. Regarding the timeline for judgments in a Sessions case under Section 258:

Statement I: The Judge must give a judgment within thirty days from the date of completion of arguments.

Statement II: This period can be extended up to sixty days if the case involves a public servant.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q11. Assertion (A): Plea bargaining is not applicable to any offence committed against a child.

Reason (R): Chapter XXIII expressly excludes offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country and those against women or children.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q12. Consider the following regarding the examination of an accused in custody (Section 316):

Statement I: If an accused in custody is examined through electronic communication, his signature must be taken immediately on the screen.

Statement II: Section 316(4) Proviso allows seventy-two hours for taking the signature after such an examination.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q13. Assertion (A): The trial of a proclaimed offender who has absconded can be held in their absence.

Reason (R): Under Section 356, the Court can commence such a trial only after ninety days have lapsed from the date of framing of the charge.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q14. Regarding the definition of "Victim" under Section 2(1)(y):

Statement I: A victim is defined only as the person who has suffered direct loss or injury.

Statement II: The definition specifically includes the guardian or legal heir of such a person.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q15. Assertion (A): A forensic expert must visit every crime scene where a cognizable offence has occurred.

Reason (R): Section 176(3) makes forensic visit and videography mandatory only for offences punishable with seven years of imprisonment or more.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q16. Consider the following regarding bail for indigent persons under Section 478:

Statement I: A person is deemed indigent if they are unable to give bail within seven days of arrest.

Statement II: The Court must release such a person on a personal bond without sureties.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q17. Assertion (A): The Government can withdraw from the prosecution of any case without consulting the victim.

Reason (R): In cases where the punishment is seven years or more, Section 360 requires that the victim be given an opportunity of being heard before withdrawal.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q18. Regarding the finality of mercy petitions under Section 472:

Statement I: A decision made by the President on a mercy petition is subject to a single judicial review by the Supreme Court.

Statement II: Section 472(7) states that such decisions are final and shall not be inquired into by any Court.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q19. Assertion (A): A person sentenced to life imprisonment for a capital offence can be released by the government after ten years.

Reason (R): Section 475 mandates that such a person shall not be released unless they have served at least fourteen years of imprisonment.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q20. Consider the High Court's power to transfer cases under Section 447:

Statement I: The High Court may transfer a case if a question of law of "unusual difficulty" is likely to arise.

Statement II: The High Court can only transfer cases between Magistrates but not between Sessions Judges.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q21. Assertion (A): If it is necessary to search a woman, any police officer can do so with strict regard to decency.

Reason (R): Section 103(3) mandates that the search of a woman must be conducted only by another woman.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q22. Regarding the Notice for Appearance under Section 35(3):

Statement I: A notice to appear before a police officer is issued in cases where arrest is not required under Section 35(1).

Statement II: If the person fails to comply with the notice, the police officer may arrest them for the offence mentioned in the notice.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q23. Assertion (A): The police must provide copies of the FIR to the victim free of cost.

Reason (R): Section 193(3)(ii) further mandates that the police inform the victim about the progress of the investigation within ninety days.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q24. Consider the requirements for an inquest inquiry under Section 194:

Statement I: An inquest is mandatory when a woman dies within seven years of her marriage under suspicious circumstances.

Statement II: The report of the inquest must be forwarded to the District Magistrate within twenty-four hours.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q25. Assertion (A): Cheating practised via electronic communications can only be tried where the messages were sent.

Reason (R): Section 202 allows such offences to be tried by any Court within whose jurisdiction the messages were sent OR received.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q26. Regarding the power of Magistrates to take cognizance under Section 210:

Statement I: A Magistrate of the first class has the inherent power to take cognizance of any offence.

Statement II: A Magistrate of the second class can only take cognizance if specially empowered by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q27. Assertion (A): A witness who is threatened can directly file a complaint in Court.

Reason (R): Section 216 specifically allows a witness or any other person to file a complaint relating to an offence of threatening a witness.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Public Nuisance orders:

Statement I: An Executive Magistrate first makes a conditional order under Section 152.

Statement II: If the person fails to show cause or comply, the order is made absolute under Section 160.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q29. Assertion (A): If a proclaimed person’s property is attached, they lose all rights to it forever.

Reason (R): Section 88 allows for the restoration of property or sale proceeds if the person appears within two years and proves they did not abscond.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q30. Regarding Special Judicial Magistrates under Section 11:

Statement I: They are appointed by the High Court if requested by the Central or State Government.

Statement II: They must possess specific legal qualifications or experience as prescribed by the High Court rules.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q31. Assertion (A): When serving a summons on a Government servant, it is always delivered directly to the individual.

Reason (R): Section 68 mandates that the summons be sent in duplicate to the head of the office where the servant is employed.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q32. Consider the rules for search warrants beyond jurisdiction under Section 104:

Statement I: If things are found in a search beyond the issuing Court's jurisdiction, they must be taken to the local Magistrate.

Statement II: The local Magistrate shall then authorize their removal to the issuing Court unless there is good cause to the contrary.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q33. Assertion (A): "Tracing" property only involves finding its physical location.

Reason (R): Section 111(e) defines tracing as determining the nature, source, disposition, movement, title, or ownership of property.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q34. Regarding Security for Good Behaviour:

Statement I: A suspected person can be ordered to execute a bond for a period not exceeding one year (Section 128).

Statement II: A habitual offender can be ordered to execute a bond for a period not exceeding three years (Section 129).

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q35. Assertion (A): The BNSS has streamlined the timeline for nuisance removal proceedings.

Reason (R): Section 157 Proviso mandates that such proceedings must be completed within ninety days.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q36. Consider the categories of persons exempt from attending an investigation at a police station (Section 179):

Statement I: A male child under the age of fifteen years is exempt.

Statement II: An elderly male person above the age of sixty-five years is exempt.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q37. Assertion (A): A judicial confession can never be recorded by audio-video means.

Reason (R): Section 183(1) specifically allows recording by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the accused's advocate.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q38. Regarding the medical examination of a rape victim under Section 184:

Statement I: The victim must be sent for examination within twenty-four hours of information being received.

Statement II: The registered medical practitioner must forward the report to the investigating officer without delay.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q39. Assertion (A): Police diaries are substantive evidence of the facts recorded within them.

Reason (R): Section 192(4) states they may be used by the Court only to aid it in an inquiry or trial, not as evidence.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q40. Consider the effect of errors in a charge under Section 238:

Statement I: Any error in the charge results in the immediate acquittal of the accused.

Statement II: An error or omission is material only if it misled the accused and occasioned a failure of justice.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q41. Assertion (A): A Magistrate of the first class can pass a sentence of imprisonment for one year in a summary trial.

Reason (R): Section 285(2) limits the maximum sentence of imprisonment in any summary trial conviction to three months.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q42. Regarding the tender of pardon to an accomplice under Section 343:

Statement I: Pardon can be tendered for any offence punishable with seven years or more.

Statement II: The condition is that the person makes a full and true disclosure of all circumstances within their knowledge.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q43. Assertion (A): The accused must always be examined on oath during trial.

Reason (R): Section 351(2) states that no oath shall be administered to the accused when he is questioned by the Court to explain circumstances against him.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q44. Consider the appeal rules for petty cases under Section 417:

Statement I: No appeal lies if a High Court passes a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three months.

Statement II: No appeal lies if a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one thousand rupees.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q45. Assertion (A): The High Court can use its inherent powers to bypass any statutory mandate in the Sanhita.

Reason (R): Judicial interpretations in the notes state that Section 528 (old S. 482) cannot be used to undermine a statutory dictate.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q46. Regarding "Zero FIR" under Section 173(1):

Statement I: A police officer is bound to record information relating to a cognizable offence irrespective of the area where it was committed.

Statement II: The officer can only record it after getting permission from the Superintendent of Police.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q47. Assertion (A): If a forensic expert dies, his report cannot be used as evidence.

Reason (R): Section 336 requires the Court to secure the presence of the successor officer holding that post to give a deposition on the report.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q48. Consider the timelines for property disposal under Section 497:

Statement I: The Court must prepare a statement of produced property within fourteen days.

Statement II: The final order for disposal or destruction must be made within thirty days after the statement is prepared.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Q49. Assertion (A): If a Magistrate not empowered by law tries an offender, the trial is valid if done in good faith.

Reason (R): Section 507(1) lists "tries an offender" as an irregularity that makes the proceedings void.

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

Q50. Regarding the period of limitation for taking cognizance under Section 514:

Statement I: The limitation period is computed from the date the Magistrate takes cognizance.

Statement II: The relevant date is actually the date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR.

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both Statements I and II are correct

D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

Answer Key – Test 7

1. B | 2. B | 3. C | 4. A | 5. C | 6. A | 7. A | 8. A | 9. D | 10. A

11. A | 12. B | 13. C | 14. B | 15. D | 16. C | 17. D | 18. B | 19. D | 20. A

21. D | 22. C | 23. B | 24. C | 25. D | 26. C | 27. A | 28. C | 29. D | 30. C

31. D | 32. C | 33. D | 34. C | 35. A | 36. A | 37. D | 38. C | 39. D | 40. B

41. D | 42. C | 43. D | 44. A | 45. D | 46. A | 47. D | 48. C | 49. D | 50. B

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 8

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Under Section 1(2), which of the following Chapters of the BNSS apply to the State of Nagaland and the "tribal areas" without requiring a specific State Government notification?

A) Chapters I, II, and III

B) Chapters IX, XI, and XII

C) Chapters V, VI, and VII

D) The entire Sanhita applies uniformly to all territories

Q2. According to the Explanation to Section 1, what is the specific cutoff date for territories to be included in the definition of "tribal areas" as referred to in the Sixth Schedule?

A) 26th January, 1950

B) 21st January, 1972

C) 15th August, 1947

D) 1st July, 2024

Q3. (Analytical) According to Section 3(2), if a function under a law other than BNSS involves the "appreciation or shifting of evidence" that exposes a person to punishment, that function is exercisable by:

A) An Executive Magistrate

B) A Judicial Magistrate

C) The District Magistrate

D) The Superintendent of Police

Q4. Under Section 8(6), who has the primary authority to specify the place or places where a Court of Session shall ordinarily hold its sitting?

A) The State Government

B) The High Court

C) The Sessions Judge

D) The District Magistrate

Q5. (Hard) According to Section 9(1), if the State Government establishes a "Special Court" of Judicial Magistrates for a particular class of cases in a local area, what is the jurisdictional effect on other Magistrates in that area?

A) They retain concurrent jurisdiction

B) They have no jurisdiction to try those specific cases or classes of cases

C) They must seek permission from the Special Court for every new filing

D) They can only hear bail applications for those cases

Q6. Under Section 17(1), the District Magistrate has the power to define the local limits for Executive Magistrates, but this power is subject to the control of:

A) The High Court

B) The State Government

C) The Sessions Judge

D) The Central Government

Q7. (Analytical) According to the notes in the Sanhita, which authority is empowered to appoint Public Prosecutors or Additional Public Prosecutors specifically for the purpose of prosecution before the Delhi High Court?

A) The Delhi Government (GNCTD)

B) The Central Government

C) The Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court

D) The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi

Q8. (Logical) Based on the ruling in Deepak Aggarwal v. Keshav Kaushik, a Public Prosecutor is considered an "Officer of the Court" and holds a "public office," but they are NOT:

A) An independent statutory authority

B) In government service

C) Subordinate to the Director of Prosecution

D) Eligible for retirement benefits

Q9. Under Section 20(5), every Public Prosecutor and Special Public Prosecutor appointed by the State Government to conduct cases in the High Court is subordinate to:

A) The Advocate General

B) The Director of Prosecution

C) The Home Secretary

D) The Sessions Judge

Q10. (Hard) According to the proviso to Section 21(a), for which specific BNS sections shall the trial be conducted "as far as practicable" by a Court presided over by a woman?

A) Sections 103 to 105 (Murder/Culpable Homicide)

B) Sections 64 to 71 (Offences against women like Rape/Gang Rape)

C) Sections 303 to 307 (Theft related offences)

D) Sections 111 to 113 (Organized Crime and Terrorism)

Q11. (Analytical) Under Section 24(1)(b), if imprisonment has been awarded as part of the substantive sentence, the term of imprisonment in default of fine shall not exceed:

A) Six months in any circumstance

B) One-fourth of the term the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence

C) One-half of the substantive sentence actually awarded

D) The total substantive sentence awarded

Q12. (Complex) According to the notes on Section 25, if a person is convicted of several offences at one trial and sentenced to "multiple sentences for life imprisonment," how shall they run?

A) Consecutively, one after the other

B) Concurrently, as they stand superimposed on each other

C) At the discretion of the Jail Superintendent

D) Consecutive for the first 14 years, then concurrent

Q13. (Logical) Under Section 27, if a Judicial Magistrate who was invested with powers throughout a local area is appointed to an "equal or higher office" of the same nature in a different local area under the same State Government, they:

A) Lose all previous powers automatically

B) Exercise the same powers in the new local area unless the High Court/State Government directs otherwise

C) Must re-apply for powers to the High Court

D) Can only exercise powers after six months of probation

Q14. Under Section 28(2), any powers conferred by the Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) may be withdrawn by:

A) The High Court exclusively

B) The District Magistrate

C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate who conferred them

D) The State Government

Q15. (Hard) According to Section 34(1)(b), an officer employed in connection with the affairs of a village must report the "resort to any place within, or the passage through" the village of any person he suspects to be:

A) A member of a banned organization

B) A robber, escaped convict, or proclaimed offender

C) A notorious receiver of stolen property

D) A person planning a non-cognizable offence

Q16. (Analytical) Under Section 39(2), if a person not resident in India is arrested for refusing to give their name/residence and is to be released on a bail bond, the bond MUST be:

A) Accompanied by a cash deposit of fifty thousand rupees

B) Secured by a surety or sureties resident in India

C) Signed by their respective Consulate

D) Verified by the Ministry of External Affairs

Q17. Under Section 42, no member of the Armed Forces of the Union shall be arrested for anything done in the discharge of official duties except with the consent of:

A) The High Court

B) The Central or State Government (as the case may be)

C) The Commanding Officer of their unit

D) The Supreme Court

Q18. (Logical) According to the Section 43(1) proviso, if a woman is to be arrested, what is the mandatory presumption regarding her submission to custody?

A) She must be handcuffed immediately

B) Her submission to custody on oral intimation shall be presumed

C) She must be arrested only by a Magistrate

D) She must be searched before being told of the arrest

Q19. (Hard) Under Section 43(3), a police officer is newly empowered to use handcuffs for certain categories of offenders. Which of the following is in this category?

A) A person accused of simple cheating

B) A person accused of counterfeiting of coins and currency-notes

C) A person accused of non-payment of maintenance

D) A person accused of defamation

Q20. According to Section 51(2), if the person of a female is to be examined by a medical practitioner, the examination shall be made:

A) In a public hospital only

B) Only by, or under the supervision of, a female registered medical practitioner

C) Only in the presence of a Judicial Magistrate

D) Only after she provides a written DNA consent form

Q21. (Analytical) Under Section 51(3) and Section 52, "examination" is defined to include modern scientific techniques. Which of the following is specifically named?

A) Lie detector test

B) Polygraph test

C) DNA profiling

D) Brain mapping

Q22. Under Section 54, if an arrested person is mentally or physically disabled and is to be identified by a witness, the identification process:

A) Cannot be used in evidence

B) Shall be videographed

C) Must take place in the presence of an advocate

D) Requires a special educator to identify the suspect

Q23. (Logical) According to Section 58, the 24-hour limit for detaining a person arrested without a warrant excludes:

A) Sundays and public holidays

B) The time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court

C) The time taken for medical examination

D) The time taken for recording the FIR

Q24. Under Section 61, if a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may pursue and arrest him:

A) Only within the local district

B) Only within the State

C) In any place in India

D) Only with a fresh warrant from the original Court

Q25. (Analytical) Section 63(ii) provides that a summons in an encrypted or electronic form is valid if it bears:

A) The physical signature of the SHO

B) The image of the seal of the Court or digital signature

C) A QR code linked to the High Court

D) A password known only to the accused

Q26. Under Section 65, service of a summons on an unincorporated association of persons may be effected by serving it on:

A) Every member of the association

B) The person in charge of the management of the firm's central office in India

C) The local police station

D) The District Collector

Q27. (Logical) According to Section 70, if a summons was served outside the local jurisdiction and the serving officer is not present at the hearing, which of the following is admissible as evidence of service?

A) A WhatsApp screenshot of the delivery

B) An affidavit made before a Magistrate

C) A verbal statement from the postman

D) A photocopy of the summons duplicate

Q28. Under Section 84(2)(ii), when a proclamation is published, a copy must be affixed to some conspicuous part of:

A) The local Police Station

B) The Court-house

C) The District Collectorate

D) The accused's workplace

Q29. (Analytical) Under Section 85(4), if the property of an absconding person to be attached is a "debt or other movable property," the attachment may be made by:

A) Seizure

B) Appointment of a receiver

C) An order in writing prohibiting the delivery of such property to the proclaimed person

D) Any of the above

Q30. Under Section 94(3), the power to issue a summons to produce a document does NOT affect which of the following?

A) The right to bail

B) Sections 129 and 130 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Privileged communications)

C) The power of the police to conduct a "Zero FIR"

D) The limitation for taking cognizance

Q31. (Hard) According to Section 95, if a document in the custody of a postal authority is wanted for investigation, which authority has the power to require its delivery?

A) Any Sub-Inspector of Police

B) Any Executive Magistrate

C) District Magistrate, CJM, Court of Session, or High Court

D) Only the Supreme Court

Q32. (Analytical) Under Section 101, which specific authority is NOT listed as having the power to make an order for the immediate restoration of an abducted female to her liberty?

A) District Magistrate

B) Sub-divisional Magistrate

C) Magistrate of the first class

D) Sessions Judge

Q33. Under Section 103(6), who is legally permitted to attend during the entire process of a search conducted at a closed place?

A) Only the police witnesses

B) The occupant of the place or some person on his behalf

C) The victim of the offence

D) No one except the searching officers

Q34. (Analytical) In reciprocal arrangements under Chapter VIII (Section 118), the Court may appoint which authority to perform the functions of a "Receiver" for property seized or forfeited?

A) The Superintendent of Police

B) The District Magistrate of the area where the property is situated

C) The Registrar of the High Court

D) A designated NGO

Q35. (Hard) Under Section 121, if the source of only a part of forfeited property has not been proved, the Court gives the affected person an option to pay a fine in lieu of forfeiture equal to:

A) Twice the market value of that part

B) The market value of such part

C) Ten percent of the total assets

D) A sum decided by the State Government

Q36. Under Section 140, before a Magistrate refuses to accept or rejects a surety, they must:

A) Consult the District Magistrate

B) Hold an inquiry on oath into the fitness of the surety or cause such inquiry to be held

C) Wait for a police clearance report

D) Demand a cash deposit first

Q37. (Logical) Based on the judicial notes on Section 144 (maintenance), when is a "stepson" obligated to provide maintenance to a stepfather?

A) Never; it is not a legal obligation

B) Only if the stepfather is a public servant

C) When the stepfather fulfilled the same responsibility as a biological father would have

D) Only if the biological mother has deceased

Q38. Under the newly added Section 145(1)(d), maintenance proceedings can now be taken against a person in any district where:

A) The marriage was solemnized

B) The person was last employed

C) His father or mother resides

D) The child was born

Q39. (Analytical) Under Section 148, if an Executive Magistrate proceeds to disperse an unlawful assembly by force, whose assistance can they NOT require for this purpose?

A) Any person who is not a member of the armed forces

B) An officer or member of the armed forces acting as such

C) A local village headman

D) A private security guard

Q40. (Hard) According to the Explanation to Section 152, which of the following is specifically included in the definition of a "public place" for the purpose of removing nuisances?

A) Private gated communities

B) Camping grounds and grounds left unoccupied for sanitary or recreative purposes

C) Only areas under the local Municipality

D) Any place where more than five people gather

Q41. Under Section 159, if a Magistrate directs a local investigation regarding a nuisance, he may:

A) Order the police to arrest the person immediately

B) Furnish the person conducting the inquiry with necessary written instructions

C) Impose a fine of one lakh rupees

D) Transfer the case to the High Court

Q42. (Logical) Under Section 161, if a Magistrate considers the public to be at imminent risk of serious injury pending a nuisance inquiry, they may:

A) Stay the proceedings indefinitely

B) Issue an injunction to enjoin the person to take temporary safeguards

C) Refer the matter for civil arbitration

D) Direct the police to seal the property within 24 hours

Q43. (Analytical) According to the notes on Section 173 (Zero FIR), a police officer is bound to record information relating to a cognizable offence:

A) Only if it happened within their police station limits

B) Only with the permission of the DSP

C) Irrespective of the area where the offence was committed

D) Only if the victim is a woman or child

Q44. According to the notes on Section 2(1)(l), does the term "investigation" include "further investigation" under Section 193(9)?

A) No, they are separate stages

B) Yes, it includes further investigation as per Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya v. State of Gujarat

C) Only if ordered by the Supreme Court

D) Only in sessions triable cases

Q45. (Hard) Under Section 198, which Court has jurisdiction if an offence is a "continuing one" and continues to be committed in more local areas than one?

A) Only the Court where the act first commenced

B) Only the Court where the act finally ended

C) Any Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas

D) The High Court of the State where the largest portion of the offence occurred

Q46. Under Section 215, no Court shall take cognizance of a "contempt of lawful authority of a public servant" (Sections 206 to 223 BNS) EXCEPT on the complaint in writing of:

A) The victim of the contempt

B) The public servant concerned or their administrative superior

C) Any person who witnessed the act

D) The District Magistrate exclusively

Q47. (Analytical) Under Section 222, if defamation is alleged against a Minister of the Union in respect of his conduct in the discharge of public functions, a Court of Session may take cognizance upon:

A) A police report

B) A complaint in writing made by the Public Prosecutor

C) A petition filed by the Cabinet Secretary

D) An order from the High Court

Q48. (Logical) According to Section 244, if a single act is of such a nature that it is "doubtful" which of several offences the facts will constitute, the accused may be charged:

A) Only for the least serious offence

B) In the alternative

C) Only for the most serious offence

D) Only after a fresh investigation is completed

Q49. Under Section 246, which of the following persons may be "charged and tried together"?

A) Persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction

B) A person accused of theft and a person accused of receiving the stolen property from that theft

C) Persons accused of different offences committed in the same transaction

D) All of the above

Q50. (Hard) Under the newly inserted Section 336, if a scientific expert or public servant who prepared a report has retired or died, the Court ________ secure the presence of the successor officer to give a deposition on that document.

A) May, in its absolute discretion,

B) Shall

C) Cannot, as it violates the rule against hearsay

D) Only if the accused consents

Answer Key – Test 8

1. B | 2. B | 3. B | 4. B | 5. B | 6. B | 7. B | 8. B | 9. B | 10. B

11. B | 12. B | 13. B | 14. C | 15. B | 16. B | 17. B | 18. B | 19. B | 20. B

21. C | 22. B | 23. B | 24. C | 25. B | 26. B | 27. B | 28. B | 29. D | 30. B

31. C | 32. D | 33. B | 34. B | 35. B | 36. B | 37. C | 38. C | 39. B | 40. B

41. B | 42. B | 43. C | 44. B | 45. C | 46. B | 47. B | 48. B | 49. D | 50. B

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 9

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. According to Section 1(2), which of the following Chapters of the Sanhita apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas without requiring a specific notification by the State Government?

A) Chapters V, VI, and VII

B) Chapters IX, XI, and XII

C) Chapters II, III, and IV

D) All Chapters apply uniformly from July 1, 2024

Q2. Under Section 3(2), if a function under any law other than the BNSS involves the "appreciation or sifting of evidence" that may expose a person to punishment, that function is exercisable by:

A) An Executive Magistrate

B) A Judicial Magistrate

C) The District Magistrate

D) The Superintendent of Police

Q3. (Hard) According to Section 8(5), if a vacancy arises in the office of the Sessions Judge and there is no Additional Sessions Judge available, who is the designated authority to handle an "urgent application" pending before the Court of Session?

A) The District Magistrate

B) The Chief Judicial Magistrate

C) The Sub-divisional Magistrate

D) The High Court Registrar

Q4. Under Section 9(1), if the State Government establishes a "Special Court" of Judicial Magistrates for a particular class of cases, what is the effect on the jurisdiction of other Magistrates in that local area?

A) They retain concurrent jurisdiction

B) They shall have no jurisdiction to try any such case or class of cases

C) They must seek written permission from the Special Court for every new case

D) They can only hear bail applications for those specific cases

Q5. (Analytical) According to Section 15 and the accompanying notes, the State Government's power to appoint "Special Executive Magistrates" has been widened to include which category of officers?

A) Any retired District Judge

B) Any police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police or equivalent

C) Any practicing advocate of ten years' standing

D) Any member of the local Municipal Corporation

Q6. Under Section 18(6), if a State has a regular "Cadre of Prosecuting Officers" but no suitable person is available for appointment as a Public Prosecutor, the Government may appoint a person from:

A) The list of High Court Advocates only

B) The panel of names prepared by the District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge

C) A pool of retired Judicial Magistrates

D) The list provided by the Bar Council of India

Q7. According to Section 20(3), under whose administrative control does the "Directorate of Prosecution" function?

A) The High Court

B) The Home Department in the State

C) The Law Ministry

D) The Governor

Q8. (Complex) Under Section 20(8), what is the specific function of a Deputy Director of Prosecution regarding police reports?

A) To monitor cases punishable with less than seven years

B) To monitor and expedite cases punishable with ten years or more, or death

C) To examine and scrutinize police reports and monitor cases punishable with seven years or more but less than ten years

D) To represent the State in the Supreme Court for all acquittal appeals

Q9. (Hard) According to the proviso to Section 21(a), for which specific BNS offences shall the trial be conducted "as far as practicable" by a Court presided over by a woman?

A) Sections 103 to 105 (Murder)

B) Sections 64 to 71 (Sexual offences)

C) Sections 303 to 307 (Theft)

D) Sections 111 to 113 (Organized Crime)

Q10. Under Section 24(1)(b), if a person is sentenced to imprisonment as part of a substantive sentence, the imprisonment in default of fine shall not exceed:

A) One-fourth of the term the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence

B) One-half of the substantive sentence awarded

C) Six months in all circumstances

D) The total term of the substantive sentence

Q11. (Logical) Based on the ruling in Muthuramalingam v. State cited in the notes to Section 25, if a person is sentenced to multiple terms of "life imprisonment" at one trial, how shall they run?

A) Consecutively

B) Concurrently, as they stand superimposed on each other

C) At the discretion of the Jail Superintendent

D) Consecutive for the first 20 years, then concurrent

Q12. Under Section 27, if a Judicial Magistrate invested with powers is appointed to an "equal or higher office" in a different local area under the same State Government, they shall:

A) Lose all previous powers

B) Exercise the same powers unless the High Court or State Government otherwise directs

C) Be required to take a fresh oath before the District Magistrate

D) Be deemed a Magistrate of the second class for three months

Q13. (Analytical) According to Section 33, every person is legally bound to give information to the authorities regarding the intention to commit certain offences. For which BNS section is this duty NOT explicitly listed?

A) Section 103 (Murder)

B) Section 140 (Kidnapping for ransom)

C) Section 318 (Cheating)

D) Section 113 (Terrorist act)

Q14. (Hard) Under Section 34(2)(ii), for the purpose of reports by village officers, "proclaimed offender" includes a person proclaimed in a territory where BNSS does NOT extend, provided the act would be punishable with:

A) Any cognizable offence

B) Imprisonment for three years or more

C) Imprisonment for ten years or more, or life, or death

D) A fine exceeding one lakh rupees

Q15. Under Section 35(3), if an arrest is not required for a cognizable offence, the police officer shall issue a notice to the person to appear. This notice is issued under which Form in the Second Schedule?

A) Form No. 1

B) Form No. 2

C) Form No. 5

D) Form No. 10

Q16. According to Section 37, the State Government shall designate a police officer in every district and sub-division responsible for:

A) Appointing Public Prosecutors

B) Maintaining and displaying information about arrested persons and the nature of their offences

C) Conducting all forensic investigations

D) Presiding over the District Directorate of Prosecution

Q17. (Hard) Under Section 39(2), if a person not resident in India is arrested for refusing to give their name/residence and is to be released on a bail bond, the bond MUST be:

A) Accompanied by a cash deposit of one lakh rupees

B) Secured by a surety or sureties resident in India

C) Signed by their respective embassy

D) Verified by the Ministry of External Affairs

Q18. Under Section 42, a member of the Armed Forces of the Union shall not be arrested for anything done in the discharge of official duties except with the consent of:

A) The High Court

B) The Central or State Government, as the case may be

C) The Commanding Officer of the unit

D) The Supreme Court

Q19. (New Provision) Under Section 43(3), a police officer is newly empowered to use handcuffs for certain offenders. For which of the following is this specifically permitted?

A) Defamation

B) Counterfeiting of coins and currency-notes

C) Non-payment of maintenance

D) Simple cheating

Q20. According to Section 51(2), if the person of a female is to be examined by a medical practitioner, the examination shall be made:

A) In a public hospital only

B) Only by, or under the supervision of, a female registered medical practitioner

C) Only in the presence of a woman Magistrate

D) Only after she provides a written DNA consent form

Q21. (Hard) Under Section 51(3), the registered medical practitioner has a mandatory duty to forward the examination report of an accused to the investigating officer:

A) Within twenty-four hours

B) Within seven days

C) Without any delay

D) Only upon a written order from the Chief Judicial Magistrate

Q22. (Analytical) Section 51 Explanation (a) defines "examination" to include modern techniques. Which of the following is specifically named?

A) Lie detector test

B) Polygraph test

C) DNA profiling

D) Brain mapping

Q23. Under Section 54, if an arrested person is mentally or physically disabled and is to be identified by a witness, the identification process:

A) Cannot take place until they recover

B) Shall be videographed

C) Must take place in a government hospital

D) Requires the presence of the District Collector

Q24. (Logical) According to Section 58, the 24-hour limit for detaining a person arrested without a warrant excludes:

A) Sundays and Gazetted holidays

B) The time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court

C) Time taken for the medical officer to arrive

D) Time spent recording the FIR

Q25. Under Section 63(ii), a summons in an encrypted or electronic form is valid if it bears:

A) The physical signature of the SHO

B) The image of the seal of the Court or digital signature

C) A QR code linked to the High Court website

D) A password known only to the accused

Q26. (Complex) Under Section 64(1), which specific entity is mandated to maintain a register for details like email and phone numbers for summons service?

A) The High Court Registrar

B) The police station or the registrar in the Court

C) The District Magistrate's office

D) The local Post Office

Q27. According to Section 66, if a person summoned cannot be found, the summons may be served on an adult member of the family. Who is explicitly EXCLUDED from the definition of "family" in this section?

A) A daughter-in-law

B) A son living separately

C) A servant

D) A spouse

Q28. (Hard) Under Section 70, if a summons was served outside the local jurisdiction and the serving officer is not present, which document is admissible as evidence of service?

A) A WhatsApp screenshot of the message

B) An affidavit made before a Magistrate

C) A verbal statement from the Postman

D) A copy of the FIR

Q29. According to Section 73, when a Court issues a warrant of arrest, it may direct by endorsement that security be taken. This endorsement must include:

A) The amount in which the sureties are to be bound

B) The blood group of the sureties

C) The bank account details of the accused

D) The Aadhaar number of the victim

Q30. Under Section 75, a Chief Judicial Magistrate or Magistrate of the first class may direct a warrant to a private person within his jurisdiction for the arrest of:

A) A person accused of a bailable offence

B) A proclaimed offender

C) A witness who failed to appear once

D) A victim of a non-cognizable offence

Q31. (Logical) According to Section 82, if a warrant is executed outside the district, the arrested person shall be taken before a Magistrate or SP unless the issuing Court is within:

A) Ten kilometres

B) Thirty kilometres

C) Fifty kilometres

D) One hundred kilometres

Q32. (Analytical) Under Section 84(4), a written statement by the Court that a proclamation was duly published in the specified manner shall be:

A) Rebuttable evidence

B) Conclusive evidence that the requirements of the section have been complied with

C) Valid only for 30 days

D) Considered a secondary record

Q33. Under Section 85(4), if the property of an absconding person to be attached is "land paying revenue to the State Government," the attachment shall be made through:

A) The Superintendent of Police

B) The Collector of the district

C) The High Court Registrar

D) A private auctioneer

Q34. (Hard) If a person whose property was attached appears within ________ years and proves they did not abscond, the property (or sale proceeds) shall be restored to them after deducting costs.

A) One year

B) Two years

C) Three years

D) Five years

Q35. Under Section 94(2), a person required "merely to produce a document" is deemed to have complied if:

A) They attend personally and explain the document

B) They cause the document to be produced instead of attending personally

C) They send a video message explaining the document

D) They send a sworn affidavit

Q36. According to Section 101, which of the following authorities is NOT listed as having the power to order the immediate restoration of an abducted female to her liberty?

A) District Magistrate

B) Sub-divisional Magistrate

C) Magistrate of the first class

D) Sessions Judge

Q37. (Analytical) In Chapter VIII (Reciprocal Arrangements), the term "tracing" is specifically defined as:

A) Finding the physical location of an absconder

B) Determining the nature, source, disposition, movement, title or ownership of property

C) Tracking the GPS coordinates of a stolen vehicle

D) Monitoring the bank transactions of a suspect

Q38. Under Section 117(2), an order for the seizure or attachment of property suspected to be "proceeds of crime" has no effect unless confirmed by the Court within:

A) Seven days

B) Fourteen days

C) Thirty days

D) Sixty days

Q39. (Hard) According to Section 121, if the source of only a part of forfeited property has not been proved, the Court gives the person an option to pay a fine in lieu of forfeiture equal to:

A) Twice the market value of that part

B) The market value of such part

C) Fifty percent of the market value

D) A sum decided by the Superintendent of Police

Q40. Under Section 135(6), an inquiry into the truth of information for security (keeping the peace) must be completed within ________ months from its commencement.

A) Three months

B) Six months

C) Nine months

D) Twelve months

Q41. (Analytical) According to the judicial notes on Section 144 (maintenance), a stepson is obligated to maintain a stepfather:

A) In all circumstances

B) Only if the stepfather is a senior citizen

C) When the stepfather fulfilled the same responsibility as a biological father would have

D) Only if the biological mother has died

Q42. Under Section 145(1)(d), a maintenance proceeding can now be taken against a person in any district where:

A) The marriage was solemnized

B) His father or mother resides

C) The child was born

D) He was last employed

Q43. (Logical) Under Section 148, if an Executive Magistrate proceeds to disperse an unlawful assembly by force, they may require the assistance of:

A) Any officer or member of the armed forces

B) Any person, not being an officer or member of the armed forces acting as such

C) The local Member of Parliament

D) A private security guard only

Q44. According to the Explanation to Section 152, the term "public place" for the purpose of removing nuisances includes:

A) Private gated communities

B) Camping grounds and grounds left unoccupied for sanitary or recreative purposes

C) Only government-owned buildings

D) Any place where more than ten people gather

Q45. (Hard) Under Section 157 Proviso, proceedings where a person appears to show cause against a conditional order for nuisance must be completed within:

A) Thirty days

B) Sixty days

C) Ninety days (extendable to 120 days)

D) Six months

Q46. (Analytical) In a dispute regarding land or water under Section 164, a Magistrate can treat a party as being in possession if they were forcibly dispossessed within ________ before the date of the police report.

A) Thirty days

B) Two months

C) Six months

D) One year

Q47. Under Section 173(1)(ii), if information regarding a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, it shall be signed by the informant within:

A) Twenty-four hours

B) Three days

C) Seven days

D) Thirty days

Q48. (New Provision) Under Section 176(3), for which category of offences is it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and for the process to be videographed?

A) Offences punishable with 3 years or more

B) Offences punishable with 7 years or more

C) Only in cases of murder and rape

D) All cognizable offences

Q49. (Analytical) According to Section 184, within what time frame must a victim of rape be sent for medical examination after receiving the information?

A) Twelve hours

B) Twenty-four hours

C) Forty-eight hours

D) Seventy-two hours

Q50. (Hard) Under Section 336, if a scientific expert who prepared a report is transferred or retired, the Court ________ secure the presence of the successor officer to give a deposition on the document.

A) May, in its discretion,

B) Shall

C) Cannot, as it is hearsay

D) Only if the accused consents

Answer Key – Test 9

1. B | 2. B | 3. B | 4. B | 5. B | 6. B | 7. B | 8. C | 9. B | 10. A

11. B | 12. B | 13. C | 14. C | 15. A | 16. B | 17. B | 18. B | 19. B | 20. B

21. C | 22. C | 23. B | 24. B | 25. B | 26. B | 27. C | 28. B | 29. A | 30. B

31. B | 32. B | 33. B | 34. B | 35. B | 36. D | 37. B | 38. C | 39. B | 40. B

41. C | 42. B | 43. B | 44. B | 45. C | 46. B | 47. B | 48. B | 49. B | 50. B

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 10

Attempt all 50 MCQs. Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the most appropriate option (A, B, C or D).

Q1. Under the Explanation to Section 1, "tribal areas" refers to territories which, immediately before the 21st day of January, 1972, were included in the tribal areas of Assam as specified in which Schedule of the Constitution?

A) Fifth Schedule

B) Sixth Schedule

C) Seventh Schedule

D) Eighth Schedule

Q2. According to Section 2(1)(s), the definition of "place" specifically includes which of the following?

A) Only houses and buildings

B) Only buildings and tents

C) House, building, tent, vehicle and vessel

D) Any area within the local limits of a police station

Q3. Under Section 10(2), who is empowered to appoint any Judicial Magistrate of the first class to be an Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate?

A) The State Government

B) The High Court

C) The Sessions Judge

D) The District Magistrate

Q4. (Hard) According to Section 15, the State Government may appoint "Special Executive Magistrates" for particular areas or functions. What is the maximum duration for such an appointment?

A) Six months

B) One year

C) Two years

D) As specified in the notification (no fixed statutory limit)

Q5. Under Section 26(2), every order conferring powers under the Sanhita by the High Court or State Government shall take effect from which date?

A) The date of the Official Gazette notification

B) The date on which it is communicated to the person so empowered

C) The date of signature by the Governor

D) Seven days after the notification

Q6. (Logical) According to Section 28(2), if the Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) confers powers on a subordinate, who has the authority to withdraw those powers?

A) Only the High Court

B) Only the Sessions Judge

C) The Chief Judicial Magistrate who conferred them

D) The District Magistrate

Q7. Under Section 30, a police officer superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station may exercise the same powers:

A) Only in the presence of the officer in charge

B) Throughout the local area to which they are appointed

C) Only if the State Government issues a specific order for each case

D) Only in cases involving organized crime

Q8. (Situation) A warrant is directed to a person who is not a police officer. According to Section 32, another person may aid in the execution of such warrant IF:

A) They are a relative of the person executing the warrant

B) The person to whom the warrant is directed is near at hand and acting in the execution

C) They are authorized by a verbal order from a Sub-Inspector

D) They are a member of the local Panchayat

Q9. Under Section 34(1)(d), village officers must report the discovery of any corpse or part of a corpse in circumstances leading to suspicion that:

A) A non-cognizable offence has been committed

B) A sudden or unnatural death has occurred

C) A theft has taken place in the village

D) A person has absconded from a neighboring district

Q10. (Analytical) According to Section 40(1), when a private person arrests another who commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence in their presence, they must without unnecessary delay:

A) Produce the person before a Magistrate within 24 hours

B) Make over the person to a police officer or take them to the nearest police station

C) Release the person if they provide their name and address

D) Search the person for offensive weapons

Q11. Under Section 50, when a police officer makes an arrest, they may take from the person arrested any offensive weapons and MUST deliver them to:

A) The nearest forensic laboratory

B) The District Magistrate

C) The Court or officer before which the arrested person is to be produced

D) The person's legal heir

Q12. (Hard) According to Section 65, service of a summons on a "society" registered under the Societies Registration Act may be effected by serving it on:

A) Any member of the society

B) The Director, Manager, or Secretary

C) The local Ward Councillor

D) The registered agent of the society's bank

Q13. Under Section 80, when a warrant of arrest is to be executed outside the local jurisdiction, the Court may forward it by post or otherwise to which of the following?

A) Any Judicial Magistrate of the first class

B) Any Executive Magistrate or District Superintendent of Police or Commissioner of Police

C) The High Court of that State

D) The Station House Officer of the nearest station

Q14. (Analytical) According to Section 85(2)(i), one of the ways a proclamation for an absconding person is published is by being publicly read in some conspicuous place of:

A) The State Capital

B) The town or village in which such person ordinarily resides

C) The District Collectorate

D) Every police station in the district

Q15. Under Section 92, if a person bound by a bond for appearance does not appear, the presiding officer of the Court may:

A) Forfeit the bond and issue a warrant for their arrest

B) Order the sureties to pay the fine within 24 hours

C) Dismiss the case for non-appearance

D) Transfer the case to a Special Executive Magistrate

Q16. (New Provision) Section 94(1) newly explicitly includes which of the following as something that a Court or officer may require to be produced for investigation?

A) Handwritten journals only

B) Electronic communication, including communication devices likely to contain digital evidence

C) Bank passbooks from foreign branches only

D) DNA samples of the accused's relatives

Q17. Under Section 97, which specific authority is NOT empowered to issue a warrant for searching a place suspected to contain stolen property or forged documents?

A) District Magistrate

B) Sub-divisional Magistrate

C) Magistrate of the first class

D) Judicial Magistrate of the second class

Q18. (Analytical) According to Section 99(1), any person having an interest in a newspaper or book forfeited under Section 98 may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within:

A) Thirty days

B) Two months

C) Six months

D) One year

Q19. Under Section 104, if things are found in a search beyond the local jurisdiction of the issuing Court, they must be taken before the issuing Court UNLESS:

A) The items are perishable

B) The place is nearer to the Magistrate having jurisdiction therein

C) The police officer is from the CBI

D) The owner of the place objects

Q20. (Hard) According to Section 109, any Court may, if it thinks fit, __________ any document or thing produced before it under this Sanhita.

A) Destroy

B) Impound

C) Return immediately

D) Sell by public auction

Q21. Under Section 114, when the Central Government receives a request from a contracting State to secure the presence of a person in India as a witness, it may forward the request to:

A) The Supreme Court

B) The High Court

C) Any Court or authority as it thinks fit

D) The Ministry of Home Affairs only

Q22. (Analytical) According to Section 121, if the source of only a part of the property forfeited under Chapter VIII has not been proved, the Court gives the person an option to pay a fine in lieu of forfeiture equal to:

A) Twice the market value of that part

B) The market value of such part

C) Fifty percent of the total property value

D) A sum decided by the District Magistrate

Q23. Under Section 141, if a person is ordered to give security for "keeping the peace" and fails to do so, the imprisonment shall be:

A) Rigorous

B) Simple

C) Solitary

D) Community service

Q24. (Logical) According to Section 143, when a person for whom fresh security is required under S. 140 or S. 142 appears, the Court shall cancel the old bond and order them to give security for:

A) A fresh full term

B) The unexpired portion of the term of the old bond

C) Twice the original amount

D) A period of three years

Q25. Under Section 151, no person shall be deemed to have committed an offence for acts done in good faith in compliance with a requisition to disperse an assembly under:

A) Section 144

B) Section 148 or Section 149

C) Section 163

D) Section 173

Q26. (Analytical) According to Section 156(2), if a Magistrate inquiring into a public right denial (nuisance) finds reliable evidence in support of such denial, the Magistrate shall:

A) Dismiss the nuisance order

B) Stay the proceedings until the matter is decided by a competent Court

C) Impose a fine on the person denying the right

D) Proceed immediately to make the order absolute

Q27. Under Section 167, when a local inquiry is necessary for land/water disputes (S. 164-166), which authority may depute a subordinate Magistrate to make the inquiry?

A) Any Magistrate of the first class

B) District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate

C) Sessions Judge

D) High Court

Q28. (Analytical) According to Section 172, every person is legally bound to conform to the lawful directions of a police officer given in fulfillment of their duty under:

A) Only Chapter V (Arrest)

B) Only Chapter XII (Preventive Action)

C) Chapter XII (Preventive Action of the Police)

D) Any Chapter of the BNS

Q29. Under Section 181(1), a statement made to a police officer during investigation shall NOT be used for any purpose at inquiry/trial EXCEPT:

A) As substantive evidence of the fact

B) To contradict such witness in the manner provided by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

C) To corroborate the witness in all circumstances

D) To prove the previous character of the accused

Q30. (Logical) According to Section 188, when a subordinate police officer has made an investigation, they must report the result to:

A) The nearest Magistrate

B) The District Magistrate

C) The officer in charge of the police station

D) The Superintendent of Police

Q31. Under Section 211, if a Magistrate takes cognizance based on his own knowledge (S. 210(1)(c)), the accused must be informed that:

A) He is likely to be convicted

B) He is entitled to have the case inquired into or tried by another Magistrate

C) He must provide a cash bail immediately

D) He cannot engage an advocate

Q32. (Analytical) Under Section 219(1)(c), if the person aggrieved by an offence of bigamy (S. 82 BNS) is the wife, a complaint may be made on her behalf by which of the following?

A) Only her biological father

B) Her father, mother, brother, sister, son, or daughter (among others)

C) Only her legal advocate

D) Any neighbor who witnessed the second marriage

Q33. According to Section 220, no Court shall take cognizance of an offence of cruelty to a woman (S. 85 BNS) except on a police report OR a complaint by:

A) The woman herself or certain specified relatives

B) Any public servant belonging to a notified class

C) Both A and B

D) Any member of the local NGO for women's rights

Q34. (Hard) According to Section 237, words used in a charge describing an offence shall be deemed to have been used:

A) In their ordinary dictionary sense

B) In the sense attached to them by the law under which such offence is punishable

C) As defined in the General Clauses Act

D) In the sense provided by the High Court Rules

Q35. Under Section 247, if a charge has multiple heads and a conviction is had on one of them, the withdrawal of the remaining charges has the effect of:

A) Discharge

B) Acquittal

C) Stay of execution

D) Suspension of the trial

Q36. (Analytical) According to Section 260, the procedure for trial in a case of defamation of the President or a Minister (S. 222(2)) shall be the same as:

A) Trial of summons-cases

B) Trial of warrant-cases instituted otherwise than on a police report

C) Summary trials

D) Sessions trials exclusively

Q37. Under Section 276, in petty cases where a special summons (S. 229) is issued, an accused who desires to plead guilty without appearing may transmit:

A) A verbal message via a police officer

B) A letter containing his plea and the amount of fine specified

C) A personal bond signed by his father

D) A request for community service

Q38. (Analytical) Under Section 286, in every case tried summarily, the Magistrate shall enter the particulars of the case in such form as:

A) The High Court may direct

B) The State Government may direct

C) The District Magistrate may provide

D) The CJM may orally instruct

Q39. According to Section 303, which authority has the power to exclude certain persons from the operation of an order requiring the attendance of a prisoner in Court (S. 302)?

A) Only the High Court

B) Only the Sessions Judge

C) The State Government or the Central Government (in specific cases)

D) The Jail Superintendent

Q40. (Hard) Under Section 323, after a commission for examination of a witness is executed and returned, the deposition shall be:

A) Kept in a sealed cover until judgment

B) Open at all reasonable times to inspection of the parties

C) Sent to the High Court for verification

D) Discarded if the witness is now available

Q41. According to Section 334, a previous conviction or acquittal may be proved (in addition to evidence of identity) by:

A) A verbal statement from the SHO

B) A certificate signed by the officer having custody of the records of the Court

C) An extract from a local newspaper

D) A sworn affidavit by the victim of the previous crime

Q42. (Analytical) Under Section 341, if a trial is before a Court of Session and the accused is not represented by an advocate, the Court ________ appoint an advocate at the expense of the State.

A) May

B) Shall

C) Shall only if the accused is a woman

D) Cannot, unless the High Court approves

Q43. Under Section 347, if a Judge or Magistrate visits and inspects a crime scene (Local Inspection), they must record a memorandum of facts:

A) Within seven days

B) Without unnecessary delay

C) Only after the trial concludes

D) Only if the prosecution requests it

Q44. (New Provision) Under Section 349, a Magistrate of the first class can newly order a person to give not just signatures or finger impressions, but also:

A) Blood samples for all offences

B) Voice samples

C) Access to all social media passwords

D) A list of all ancestors

Q45. (Analytical) In the Table of Compounding Offences (Section 359(1)), which person is competent to compound the offence of "Enticing a married woman" (S. 84 BNS)?

A) Only the woman

B) Only the husband of the woman

C) The husband of the woman and the woman

D) The father of the woman

Q46. According to Section 366(1), the place in which any Criminal Court is held for the purpose of inquiring into or trying any offence shall be deemed to be:

A) A private chamber

B) An open Court, to which the public generally may have access

C) A restricted area

D) Subject to the District Magistrate's daily permit

Q47. (Hard) Under Section 373, when a person is acquitted on the ground of unsoundness of mind, the finding of the Court shall specifically state:

A) Whether they should be sent to a regular jail

B) Whether they committed the act or not

C) The name of the medical practitioner who examined them

D) The specific BNS section they violated

Q48. Under Section 384, for a contempt committed in the view of the Court, the maximum fine that can be imposed is:

A) Five hundred rupees

B) One thousand rupees

C) Two thousand rupees

D) Five thousand rupees

Q49. (Logical) According to Section 433, if the Judges of a Court of appeal are equally divided in opinion, the appeal shall be:

A) Re-heard by the same Judges

B) Decided by the opinion of the senior Judge

C) Re-heard by those Judges and another Judge (or as specified by the High Court)

D) Automatically dismissed

Q50. Under Section 486, every person standing surety to an accused person for his release on bail MUST:

A) Deposit 50% of the bond amount in cash

B) Make a declaration before the Court as to the number of persons to whom he has stood surety

C) Be a registered government employee

D) Provide their DNA sample to the police station

Answer Key – Test 10

1. B [S. 1 Explanation] | 2. C [S. 2(1)(s)] | 3. B [S. 10(2)] | 4. D [S. 15] | 5. B [S. 26(2)] | 6. C [S. 28(2)] | 7. B [S. 30] | 8. B [S. 32] | 9. B [S. 34(1)(d)] | 10. B [S. 40(1)]

11. C [S. 50] | 12. B [S. 65] | 13. B [S. 80] | 14. B [S. 85(2)(i)] | 15. A [S. 92] | 16. B [S. 94(1)] | 17. D [S. 97] | 18. B [S. 99(1)] | 19. B [S. 104] | 20. B [S. 109]

21. C [S. 114] | 22. B [S. 121] | 23. B [S. 141] | 24. B [S. 143(1)] | 25. B [S. 151] | 26. B [S. 156(2)] | 27. B [S. 167(1)] | 28. C [S. 172] | 29. B [S. 181(1)] | 30. C [S. 188]

31. B [S. 211] | 32. B [S. 219(1)(c)] | 33. C [S. 220] | 34. B [S. 237] | 35. B [S. 247] | 36. B [S. 260(1)] | 37. B [S. 276(1)] | 38. B [S. 286] | 39. C [S. 303] | 40. B [S. 323(1)]

41. B [S. 334] | 42. B [S. 341] | 43. B [S. 347] | 44. B [S. 349] | 45. C [S. 359 Table 1] | 46. B [S. 366(1)] | 47. B [S. 373] | 48. B [S. 384(1)] | 49. C [S. 433] | 50. B [S. 486]

Directions for Investigating Officers (IO) and Police

Registration of Information: Police must record information regarding a cognizable offence regardless of the area where the crime was committed (Zero FIR). If information is given via electronic communication, it must be signed by the informant within three days to be taken on record.

Mandatory Copy to Victim: A copy of the FIR as recorded must be provided forthwith and free of cost to the informant or the victim.

Procedure for Arrest: Every officer making an arrest must bear clear identification of their name. They must prepare a memorandum of arrest attested by at least one witness (family or respectable locality member) and countersigned by the person arrested.

Restriction on Arrest: No arrest shall be made without prior permission from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police if the offence carries a sentence of less than three years and the person is infirm or above sixty years of age.

Forensic Requirement: For offences punishable with seven years or more, the IO must cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect evidence, and the process must be videographed via mobile or electronic device.

Search and Seizure: The entire process of conducting a search or taking possession of property, including the preparation and signing of the seizure list by witnesses, shall be recorded through audio‑video electronic means (preferably mobile phone) and forwarded to a Magistrate without delay.

Victim Progress Report: The police officer is mandated to inform the victim or informant of the progress of the investigation within ninety days through any means, including electronic communication.

Special Recording Rules: Statements from women alleging sexual offences (rape, etc.) must be recorded by a woman police officer. If the victim is disabled, the statement must be recorded at their residence or a place of their choice in the presence of an interpreter or special educator and must be videographed.

Directions for Courts and Magistrates

Electronic Mode: All trials, inquiries, and proceedings, including the issuance of summons, examination of witnesses, and appellate proceedings, may be held in electronic mode.

Timelines for Trial and Committal: Committal proceedings to a Court of Session must be completed within ninety days (extendable to 180 days for recorded reasons). In a Sessions trial, the Judge must frame the charge in writing within sixty days from the date of the first hearing on charge. In a warrant‑case, the Magistrate must also frame the charge within sixty days of the first hearing.

Judgment Timeline: The Judge must give a judgment within thirty days from the completion of arguments, which can be extended to forty‑five days only for recorded reasons.

Discharge Timeline: An accused may prefer an application for discharge within sixty days from the date of commitment or from the supply of documents.

Property Disposal: Courts must prepare a statement of produced property within fourteen days. A final order for disposal or destruction must be made within thirty days after the statement is prepared.

Special Benches: Offences under BNS Sections 64 to 71 (rape and sexual offences) shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a Court presided over by a woman.

In‑Camera Trials: Trials for rape and other specific sexual offences shall be conducted in camera.

Rights of the Accused

Right to Information: The arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest and their right to bail if the offence is bailable.

Meeting Advocate: An arrested person has the right to meet an advocate of their choice during interrogation, though not throughout the entire process.

Legal Aid: If a trial is before a Court of Session and the accused cannot engage an advocate, the Court shall appoint one at the State’s expense.

Health and Safety: It is the legal duty of the person having custody of an accused to take reasonable care of their health and safety.

Medical Examination: Accused persons have the right to be examined by a medical officer soon after arrest. A copy of the medical report must be furnished to the arrested person or their nominee.

Supply of Documents: In cases instituted on a police report, the Magistrate must furnish the accused with copies of the police report, FIR, and witness statements within fourteen days from appearance.

Limited Use of Handcuffs: Handcuffs may only be used for habitual or repeat offenders, escapees, or those involved in grave crimes like terrorism, organized crime, rape, or acid attack.

Plea Bargaining: The accused has the right to file for plea bargaining for offences not punishable by death, life imprisonment, or more than seven years, provided the crime is not against a woman or a child.

Rights of the Victim

Right to Compensation: The State Government, in coordination with the Central Government, must prepare a Victim Compensation Scheme. The Court may recommend compensation even in cases of acquittal or discharge if the victim requires rehabilitation.

Immediate Medical Aid: All hospitals (public or private) must provide first‑aid or medical treatment free of cost to victims of rape and acid attacks.

Hearing Before Withdrawal: In cases where the punishment is seven years or more, the victim must be given an opportunity of being heard before the Government withdraws the case.

Right to Assist Prosecution: The Court may permit a victim to engage an advocate of their choice to assist the prosecution.

Witness Protection: The State Government is mandated to notify a Witness Protection Scheme to ensure the safety of witnesses and victims.

Privacy and Dignity: Statements of rape victims should be recorded as far as practicable by a woman Magistrate. In cases of minor victims of sexual offences, the Court must ensure the victim is not confronted by the accused during evidence recording while still protecting the right of cross‑examination.

Right to Appeal: The victim has a specific right to prefer an appeal against an order acquitting the accused, convicting for a lesser offence, or imposing inadequate compensation.

BNSS Prelims Test Series

LEGISLATIVE DIRECTIONS IN BNSS

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 1

Answer Key – Test 1

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 2

Answer Key – Test 2

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 3

BNSS/CrPC

Answer Key – Test 3

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 4

Answer Key – Test 4

BNSS Prelims Comprehensive Test Series: Test 5

Q1. Under Section 103(3), if it is necessary to cause a female to be searched during the search of a closed place, who must conduct the search?

A) Any police officer present on the scene B) Another female with strict regard to decency C) A registered medical practitioner in a hospital D) The owner or occupant of the searched place irrespective of gender

Q2. According to the first proviso of Section 53(1), which of the following is specifically included as an update in the BNSS regarding the examination of an arrested person?

A) The requirement to film the entire examination on a DSLR B) Additional medical examination of the arrested person in police custody C) The mandatory presence of a Judicial Magistrate D) A mandatory psychiatric evaluation for all cognizable offences

Q3. Under Section 173(1), if information regarding an offence of rape is given by the victim, who is mandated to record such information?

A) The officer in charge of the police station (SHO) B) A woman police officer or any woman officer C) A Magistrate of the first class directly D) A registered medical practitioner at a government hospital

Q4. (Logical) According to Section 72(2), a warrant of arrest issued by a Court shall remain in force until which of the following occurs?

A) The expiry of thirty days from the date of issue B) The end of the financial year in which it was issued C) It is cancelled by the Court which issued it, or until it is executed D) The accused is formally declared a proclaimed offender

Q5. To which authority is every Chief Judicial Magistrate subordinate under the provisions of Section 13(1)?

A) The District Magistrate B) The Sessions Judge C) The State Government’s Home Department D) The High Court exclusively

Q6. (Analytical) Under Section 84(4), a written statement by the Court that a proclamation was duly published on a specified day in a specified manner shall be:

A) Rebuttable evidence that may be challenged by the accused B) Conclusive evidence that the requirements of the section have been complied with C) Considered a secondary record only D) Valid only if it is countersigned by the District Magistrate

Q7. What is the mandatory timeline for a Magistrate to pass a final order for the disposal of property after documentation (like statement, photos, or videos) is complete under Section 497?

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q8. (Situation) A summons is issued to a Government servant in active service. According to Section 68, the Court shall ordinarily send it in duplicate to whom?

A) The servant directly via their official email address B) The head of the office in which such person is employed C) The District Magistrate of the area where the servant resides D) The local police station having jurisdiction over the office

Q9. Under Section 181, a statement made by a person to a police officer in the course of an investigation, if reduced to writing, shall:

A) Be signed by the person making it immediately B) Not be signed by the person making it C) Be verified by two independent witnesses on the spot D) Be deemed a dying declaration in all cases

Q10. (Hard) According to Section 336, if a scientific expert who prepared a report is retired or dead, the Court shall secure the presence of whom to give a deposition on such document?

A) No one; the report shall be discarded as hearsay B) The successor officer holding that post at the time of deposition C) The head of the department where the expert worked D) The police officer who submitted the report to the expert

Q11. Under Section 263, in a warrant-case instituted on a police report, the Magistrate shall frame the charge within how many days from the date of the first hearing on charge?

A) Thirty days B) Sixty days C) Ninety days D) One hundred and twenty days

Q12. (Logical) If an Executive Magistrate considers that the public is at imminent risk of serious injury pending an inquiry into a nuisance, they may issue an injunction under which section?

A) Section 144 B) Section 161 C) Section 163 D) Section 173

Q13. Service of a summons on a corporate body or society may be effected by serving it on which of the following?

A) Any employee present at the registered office B) The Director, Manager, or Secretary C) The local Municipal Councillor of the ward D) The security agency guarding the corporate premises

Q14. (Analytical) According to Section 4(2), all offences under laws other than the BNS shall be investigated and tried according to BNSS provisions, but subject to:

A) The prior approval of the High Court B) Any enactment for the time being in force regulating the manner or place of dealing with such offences C) The absolute discretion of the Director of Prosecution D) The rules of natural justice only

Q15. Under Section 41, when may a Magistrate arrest a person without a warrant?

A) If any offence is committed within his local jurisdiction and in his presence B) Only if a cognizable offence is committed anywhere in the State C) Only when a police officer is not available D) Only if the person is a woman or a child

Q16. (Situation) A Magistrate conducts an inquiry into a dispute over land likely to cause a breach of peace. If the crop on the land is subject to speedy and natural decay, the Magistrate may order its sale under:

A) Section 144 B) Section 164(8) C) Section 173 D) Section 505

Q17. Under Section 230, the Magistrate must furnish copies of the police report and other documents to the accused and the victim within how many days from the date of appearance?

A) Seven days B) Fourteen days C) Thirty days D) Sixty days

Q18. Which authority prepares the panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutors in a district under Section 18(4)?

A) The High Court in consultation with the State Government B) The District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge C) The Sessions Judge alone D) The Superintendent of Police in consultation with the DM

Q19. (Hard) For which of the following categories of offences is it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and for the process to be videographed under Section 176(3)?

A) Offences punishable with 3 years or more B) Offences punishable with 7 years or more C) Only in cases of murder and gang rape D) All cognizable offences regardless of punishment

Q20. According to Section 226, if a Magistrate finds no sufficient ground for proceeding after considering the result of an investigation, he shall:

A) Discharge the accused without recording reasons B) Dismiss the complaint and briefly record his reasons for so doing C) Direct the informant to file a fresh civil suit ) Issue a warrant for the arrest of the complainant

Q21. (Logical) Under Section 135(6), an inquiry into the truth of information for security cases must be completed within how many months from its commencement?

A) Three months B) Six months C) Nine months D) Twelve months

Q22. Under Section 105, which of the following is the "preferred" device for recording search and seizure through audio-video electronic means?

A) A professional CCTV system B) A mobile phone C) A dedicated body-worn camera ) A digital tape recorder

Q23. (Analytical) According to Section 241, what is the general rule regarding the trial of distinct offences of which a person is accused?

A) They must all be tried in a single combined trial B) There shall be a separate charge for every distinct offence and every such charge shall be tried separately C) Only the most serious offence should be charged to save time D) The accused may choose which charge to be tried for first

Q24. (Situation) A person is dispossessed of their house by criminal force. Under Section 502, the Trial Court may order restoration of possession at the time of conviction or within:

A) Seven days thereafter B) Fourteen days thereafter C) Thirty days thereafter D) Sixty days thereafter

Q25. Under Section 148, which of the following officers is NOT empowered to command an unlawful assembly to disperse?

A) Executive Magistrate B) Officer in charge of a police station C) Any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector D) A Police Constable on beat duty

Q26. (Complex) Under Section 24, what is the maximum period of imprisonment that a Magistrate can award in default of payment of a fine?

A) Six months in all cases B) One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict for the offence C) One-half of the term of imprisonment which the Magistrate is competent to inflict D) Not exceeding the substantive power of a Magistrate of the second class

Q27. In a trial before a Court of Session, the Public Prosecutor shall open the case under Section 249 by describing the charge and stating:

A) The names of all defense witnesses B) By what evidence he expects to prove the guilt of the accused C) The amount of compensation the victim expects D) The date the accused was first detained

Q28. (Hard) According to Section 219(6), no Court shall take cognizance of rape by a man with his own wife (the wife being under 18) if how much time has elapsed from the date of the offence?

A) Three months B) Six months C) One year D) Three years

Q29. Under Section 343, a pardon to an accomplice may be tendered for offences punishable with imprisonment extending to how many years?

A) Three years B) Five years C) Seven years or more D) Only death

Q30. (Analytical) According to Section 514, what is the "relevant date" for computing the period of limitation for taking cognizance?

A) The date the Magistrate takes cognizance B) The date of the arrest of the accused C) The date of filing the complaint or recording the FIR D) The date the first summons is served

Q31. Which authority has the power under Section 523 to make rules regarding the licensing and fees for petition-writers in subordinate Criminal Courts?

A) The State Government alone B) The High Court with the previous approval of the State Government C) The District Magistrate of each district D) The Bar Council of India

Q32. (Situation) A man is accused of cheating practised by means of electronic communications sent from Delhi to a victim in Mumbai. Where can the offence be tried under Section 202?

A) Only in Delhi where the messages were sent B) Only in Mumbai where the messages were received C) Either in Delhi or Mumbai (any Court within whose local jurisdiction such messages were sent or received) D) Only in a Metropolitan Court

Q33. Under Section 59, to whom must officers in charge of police stations report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant?

A) The High Court Registrar B) The District Magistrate (or Sub-divisional Magistrate if directed) C) The Public Prosecutor D) The Sessions Judge

Q34. (Logical) According to Section 183(2), before recording a confession, a Magistrate must explain to the person that:

A) They are legally bound to make a confession B) If they confess, their sentence will be reduced by half C) They are not bound to make a confession and that, if they do, it may be used as evidence against them D) The confession must be made in the presence of the victim