Based on Chapter V (Arrest of Persons) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), here are 50 comprehensive practice questions designed to test memory, logic, and analytical skills.

ANSWERS ARE GIVEN IN THE END

​

Part A: Arrest without Warrant (Section 35)

​

1. A police officer may arrest any person without a warrant if that person commits a cognizable offence: 

A) In the presence of a Magistrate
B) In the presence of a police officer
C) Only if the offence is punishable with death
D) Only if a formal FIR has been registered

​

2. For a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for 7 years or less, an arrest is NOT mandatory unless the officer is satisfied that: 

A) The person is a habitual offender
B) Arrest is necessary to prevent the person from tampering with evidence
C) The victim demands the arrest
D) The offence was committed in public

​

3. Under Section 35(1), if an arrest is NOT made for an offence punishable with 7 years or less, the police officer must:

A) Obtain permission from the CJM
B) Record reasons in writing for not making the arrest
C) Release the person on a personal bond immediately
D) Inform the High Court

​

4. Credible information of a cognizable offence punishable with more than 7 years of imprisonment allows arrest if the officer has "reason to believe" the person committed it. This is provided under:

A) Section 35(1)(a)
B) Section 35(1)(b)
C) Section 35(1)(c)
D) Section 35(1)(g)

​

5. A person can be arrested without a warrant if they are reasonably suspected of being a deserter from: 

A) The Civil Service
B) Any of the Armed Forces of the Union
C) A private security firm
D) A foreign embassy

​

6. Section 35(7) introduces a protection for specific classes. No arrest shall be made without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of ______ if the offence is punishable with less than 3 years and the person is infirm or above 60 years of age. 

A) Inspector
B) Deputy Superintendent of Police
C) Superintendent of Police
D) District Magistrate

​

PART B: Procedure and Rights (Sections 36–41)

​

7. Every police officer making an arrest must prepare a memorandum of arrest. This memorandum must be attested by at least one witness who is: 

A) A Gazetted Officer
B) A family member or a respectable member of the locality
C) A person from the nearest police station
D) A lawyer

​

8. The State Government is mandated to establish a police control room at: 

A) Every police station level
B) Every district and at State level
C) Only in the State capital
D) Only in metropolitan areas

​

9. Who is responsible for maintaining information about arrested persons (names, addresses, nature of offence) at the district headquarters? 

A) The District Magistrate
B) A designated police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector
C) The Sessions Judge
D) The Public Prosecutor

​

10. An arrested person's right to meet an advocate of their choice during interrogation is: 

A) Absolute and throughout the interrogation
B) Discretionary and at the IO's choice
C) Allowed, but not throughout the interrogation
D) Only available if the offence is non-bailable

​

11. If a person commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of a police officer and refuses to give their name and residence, they may be arrested under: 

A) Section 35
B) Section 39
C) Section 40
D) Section 43

​

12. A private person may arrest another person if that person, in their presence, commits: A) Any offence under the BNS
B) A non-bailable and cognizable offence
C) An act of public nuisance
D) Only a petty offence

​

13. When an arrest is made by a Magistrate (Executive or Judicial), they can arrest: 

A) Only for offences committed in their presence within their local jurisdiction
B) For any offence committed anywhere in the State
C) Only if they are accompanied by a police officer
D) Only for non-bailable offences

​

PART: C: Mode of Arrest and Handcuffs (Sections 42–46)

​

14. According to Section 43(1), in making an arrest, the officer shall "actually touch or confine the body" unless:

A) The person is a woman
B) There is submission to custody by word or action
C) The person is a public servant
D) The offence is bailable

​

15. Under the newly inserted Section 43(3), a police officer MAY use handcuffs while making an arrest or producing a person before court if the person is:

A) Accused of a petty offence
B) A first-time offender
C) A habitual or repeat offender or accused of organised crime/terrorist acts
D) A woman

​

16. Which of the following offences is NOT listed under Section 43(3) as a category where handcuffs can be used?

A) Murder
B) Rape
C) Defamation
D) Human trafficking

​

17. Except in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise. If such circumstances exist, who must give prior permission? 

A) Superintendent of Police
B) Magistrate of the first class
C) The High Court
D) The State Government

​

18. If a person to be arrested enters a place occupied by a female who, by custom, does not appear in public, the officer must: 

A) Wait for her to come out
B) Give notice to her that she is at liberty to withdraw before entering
C) Break the door immediately without notice
D) Call for a woman Magistrate

​

PART D: Search and Information (Sections 47–50)

​

19. Every police officer arresting without a warrant, except for a person accused of a non-bailable offence, must inform the arrested person that:

A) They are entitled to a free lawyer
B) They are entitled to be released on bail and may arrange for sureties
C) They must confess immediately
D) They have no rights until produced before a Magistrate

​

20. When an article is seized during the search of an arrested person under Section 49, the officer must: 

A) Forfeit it to the State immediately
B) Give a receipt showing the articles taken in possession
C) Deposit it with the District Magistrate within 1 hour
D) Destroy it if it is a mobile phone

​

21. A female can only be searched by: 

A) A police officer of the rank of Inspector
B) Any police officer in the presence of witnesses
C) Another female with strict regard to decency
D) A medical practitioner only

​

PART E: Medical Examination (Sections 51–53)

​

22. Under Section 51, "examination" of an accused at the request of a police officer includes: 

A) DNA profiling
B) Examination of blood, semen, and hair samples
C) Modern and scientific techniques
D) All of the above

​

23. The newly inserted Section 51(3) casts a duty on the registered medical practitioner to forward the examination report to: 

A) The Magistrate
B) The Accused
C) The Investigating Officer
D) The Sessions Judge

​

24. For the medical examination of a person accused of rape under Section 52, the examination must be conducted by a practitioner in a government-run hospital or, if unavailable within a radius of ______, by any other registered practitioner.

A) Five kilometres
B) Ten kilometres
C) Sixteen kilometres
D) Twenty kilometres

​

25. According to Section 53, soon after an arrest is made, the arrested person ______ be examined by a medical officer. 

A) May
B) Shall
C) Should, if they request
D) Shall, only if the offence is bailable

​

26. Who is entitled to receive a copy of the medical examination report prepared under Section 53?

A) Only the Police
B) The arrested person or a person nominated by them
C) Only the Court
D) The media

​

PART F: Identification and Detention (Sections 54–62)

​

27. If the person identifying an arrested person is mentally or physically disabled, the identification process must be: 

A) Conducted by the police alone
B) Supervised by a Magistrate and recorded by audio-video electronic means
C) Done only in a hospital
D) Dispensed with

​

28. Under Section 55, if an SHO requires a subordinate to arrest without a warrant, he must deliver ______ specifying the person and the offence. 

A) A verbal command
B) An order in writing
C) A search warrant
D) A copy of the FIR

​

29. The duty to take "reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused" lies with: 

A) The Magistrate
B) The Medical Officer
C) The person having the custody of the accused
D) The State Government

​

30. Section 58 mandates that an arrested person cannot be detained for more than 24 hours (excluding journey time) without: 

A) An order from the Superintendent of Police
B) A special order of a Magistrate under Section 187
C) Consent from the Public Prosecutor
D) A written confession

​

31. Officers in charge of police stations must report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to: 

A) The High Court
B) The District Magistrate (or SDM if directed)
C) The State Home Department
D) The Director of Prosecution

​

32. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody they escaped may pursue and arrest them: 

A) Only within the local district
B) Only within the State
C) In any place in India
D) Only with a fresh warrant

​

PART G: Statement-Based and Assertion-Reasoning (Tough)

​

33. Consider the following statements regarding Section 35:

• Statement I: A police officer can arrest someone for obstructing them in the execution of duty.

• Statement II: A person liable to be apprehended under extradition law can be arrested without a warrant. 

​

Which is correct? 

A) Only I

B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

​

34. Assertion (A): The BNSS requires videography of the recording of information from a disabled victim of a sexual offence.
       Reason (R): This is to ensure accuracy and protection of the victim's rights during the investigation.

​

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation.
C) A is true, R is false.
D) A is false, R is true.

​

35. True or False: Under Section 60, an arrested person can be discharged on their own bond or bail bond without a Magistrate's order.

[True - Per Section 60, they can be discharged on their bond, bail bond, or special order of a Magistrate.]

​

36. Statement I: The use of audio-video electronic means for recording identification is mandatory for all suspects.
       Statement II: It is mandatory only if the identifying person is mentally or physically disabled.

A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

​

37. Choose the correct option:
A police officer arrests 'X' for a non-cognizable offence because 'X' refused to give his name. Two hours later, 'X' gives his true name. The officer:
A) Must still take 'X' to the Magistrate
B) Must release 'X' on a bond or bail bond
C) Can keep 'X' for 24 hours
D) Must register an FIR for the refusal

​

38. Assertion (A): A woman cannot be arrested after sunset except in exceptional circumstances.
      Reason (R): In such cases, a male police officer must obtain oral permission from a DSP.

A) A is true, R is false.
B) A is false, R is true.
C) Both are true and R explains A.
D) Both are false.

[ R is false because it must be a woman police officer and permission from a Magistrate 1st Class in writing.]

 

39. Regarding Section 35(1)(b), which condition is NOT required for arresting someone for a cognizable offence punishable with 3 years? 

A) Prevention of further offences
B) Proper investigation
C) Ensuring presence in Court
D) The person must be a proclaimed offender

​

[Proclaimed offender falls under 35(1)(d), not 35(1)(b)]

​

40. True or False: A search under Section 185 by a police officer should preferably be recorded on a mobile phone.

[True - Per Section 185(2) Proviso.]

​

PART H: Logical and Analytical Skills

​

41. An officer arrests a person for a crime punishable with 10 years imprisonment. The officer HAS credible information but no "satisfaction" that the person will abscond. Can he arrest?

A) No, satisfaction is always required.
B) Yes, under Section 35(1)(c), credible information of an offence >7 years is sufficient if he has reason to believe.
C) Only if the Magistrate allows it.
D) No, he must give a notice first.

​

42. If a person is indigent and unable to furnish a surety for a bailable offence, the officer/Court:

A) Must keep them in jail
B) Shall discharge them on a personal bond without surety
C) Must reduce the bail amount by 50%
D) Must wait for a relative to arrive

​

43. A medical practitioner examines an accused and discovers evidence through DNA profiling. Is this admissible?

A) No, DNA profiling is not mentioned in the Sanhita.
B) Yes, Section 51 specifically includes DNA profiling in the definition of examination.
C) Only if the accused consents in writing.
D) Only in murder cases.

​

44. Which rank of police officer is designated to maintain the "Arrested Persons" display at every station? 

A) Constable
B) Head Constable
C) Assistant Sub-Inspector or above
D) Inspector

​

45. If a police officer arrests 'A' in Mumbai for an offence committed in Delhi and 'A' escapes in Jaipur during transit, the officer can: 

A) Only arrest 'A' if they have a new warrant
B) Pursue and arrest 'A' in any place in India
C) Only request the Jaipur police to arrest
D) Do nothing

​

46. Under Section 43(3), can handcuffs be used for a first-time offender accused of a petty theft? 

A) Yes, police discretion is absolute.
B) No, the section specifies habitual offenders or those committed for specific serious crimes.
C) Only if the offender is a male.
D) Only if the value is > ₹20,000.

​

47. When a Magistrate arrests someone under Section 41, they can commit that person to custody. To whom must they then send the person? 

A) The High Court
B) A competent Magistrate
C) The State Government
D) The Police Control Room

​

48. In case of doubt regarding the successor-in-office of a Magistrate, who decides? 

A) Sessions Judge
B) Chief Judicial Magistrate or District Magistrate
C) High Court
D) State Government

​

49. Statement I: The duty to inform a relative about an arrest is optional.
Statement II: The officer must inform the relative and also the designated police officer in the district.

A) I is true
B) II is true
C) Both are true
D) Both are false

​

50. Section 62 of the BNSS mandates that all arrests must be made: 

A) At the discretion of the SHO
B) Strictly according to the Sanhita or other laws providing for arrest
C) Only during daylight hours
D) Only if an FIR is lodged

​

Answers

1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-C, 11-B, 12-B, 13-A, 14-B, 15-C, 16-C, 17-B, 18-B, 19-B, 20-B, 21-C, 22-D, 23-C, 24-C, 25-B, 26-B, 27-B, 28-B, 29-C, 30-B, 31-B, 32-C, 33-C, 34-A, 35-True, 36-B, 37-B, 38-A, 39-D, 40-True, 41-B, 42-B, 43-B, 44-C, 45-B, 46-B, 47-B, 48-B, 49-B, 50-B.